FREE ISSA Practice Tests 2023 - 380+ Practice Questions

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FREE ISSA Practice Tests [year] - 380+ Practice Questions 1

ISSA CPT Practice Exam Part 1

Welcome to your ISSA Practice Exam (part 1)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual ISSA Exam with the same number of questions (200) and untimed as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (100) for each part.

The ISSA Exam breakdown into Six (6) Parts, in this part of ISSA Practice Exam you will have 100 questions to complete.

Here are the Six (6) Domains of ISSA with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology) [25 Questions] - 25%

2. Nutrition [10 Questions] - 10%

3. Intake and Ongoing Evaluation [15 Questions] - 15%

4. Program Design and Implementation [25 Questions] - 25%

5. Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction [15 Questions] - 15%

6. Professional Practice and Responsibility [10 Questions] - 10%

Please click NEXT to start your Free ISSA PRACTICE EXAM right away.

Best of Luck!

The Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are what kind of sensory receptors?

Nociceptors

Mechanoreceptors

Photoreceptors

Chemoreceptors

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

Slow to fatigue

Larger in size

Short-term contractions

Decreased oxygen delivery

In regard to working with the internal obliques, what is the main muscular role of the transverse abdominis?

To facilitate lateral flexion

To isometrically stabilize the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

To assist in trunk flexion

To facilitate contralateral rotation

All of the following are potential side effects of elevated cortisol levels except:

Increased body composition (specifically abdominal fat)

Decreased fat utilization

Decreased breathing rate

Breakdown of muscle tissue

What amount of time is recommended to hold a stretch for the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) to signal a muscle to relax?

45 seconds

15 seconds

30 seconds

10 seconds

The patella is considered to be which type of bone?

Irregular bone

Short bone

Flat bone

Sesamoid bone

When the body is trying to regulate its temperature properly, what sensory receptors does it rely on?

Mechanoreceptors

Thermoreceptors

Nociceptors

Chemoreceptors

All of the following are causes of restrictive lung disease except:

Fractured ribs

Asthma

A neuromuscular disease

Obesity

Proprioception uses information from which of the following to provide information about body position and movement?

Chemoreceptors

Muscle synergies

Mechanoreceptors

Sensorimotor integration

10.

Which of the following muscles commonly causes a decreased neural drive of the gluteus maximus?

Psoas

Hamstrings

Gluteus medius

Adductors

11.

When overtraining occurs, which hormone is typically present in the bloodstream?

Epinephrine

Cortisol

Growth hormone

Norepinephrine

12.

How does the body use the central nervous system to create movement?

Through proprioception, which is its ability to sense the relative position of body parts

Through sensory function, which is its ability to detect alterations in the body's internal or external environment

Through motor function, which is the neuromuscular response to sensory data

Through integrative function, which is its capacity to evaluate sensory information and choose a suitable reaction

13.

After exercising for over 90 minutes, which fuel source is an individual most likely to run out of?

Fat

Glycogen

Acetyl-CoA

Amino acids

14.

What is the unique feature of Type IIa muscle fibers?

They can produce the most speed and strength

They can provide the most stabilization force without fatiguing as quickly

They are capable of creating energy from both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism in nearly equal amounts

They contain the most mitochondria, myoglobin, and capillaries

15.

Which of the following is considered the best time increment for measuring heart rate during exercise?

6 seconds

10 seconds

15 seconds

60 seconds

16.

Inside the myofibrils of muscle tissue, which two types of contractile myofilaments can be found?

Sarcoplasm and plasma

Actin and myosin

Tropomyosin and troponin

Agonist and synergist

17.

During a biceps curl, the triceps brachii would be considered which type of mover?

Stabilizer

Antagonist

Agonist

Synergist

18.

Which of the following is not a kinetic chain checkpoint term?

Foot

Core

Knee

Shoulders

19.

Growth hormone is stimulated by all of the following except:

Deep sleep

Testosterone

Catecholamines

Vigorous exercise

20.

Golfing and swinging a bat are both examples of movement that occurs in which plane of motion?

Sagittal

Frontal

Longitudinal

Tranverse

21.

Which of the following is not a primary muscle of the global stabilization system?

Quadratus lumborum

Gluteus medius

Latissimus dorsi

Rectus abdominis

22.

What are the two mechanoreceptors involved in flexibility?

Muscle spindles and connective tissues

Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) and efferent neurons

Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)

Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) and connective tissues

23.

Which of the following is the body's most usable form of energy?

Adenosine diphosphate

Adenosine triphosphate

Macronutrients (protein, fat, carbohydrates)

Micronutrients (minerals, vitamins, phytonutrients)

24.

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except:

Upper trapezius

Levator scapulae

Sternocleidomastoid

Deep cervical flexors

25.

Reciprocal inhibition can best be described as:

When a muscle relaxes to allow another muscle to contract

The resting length of a muscle and the tension that muscle can produce at that resting length

Response to stimuli that activates movement in muscles

Muscle groups producing movement around a joint by moving simultaneously

26.

Which of the following is a potential effect of excess vitamin A intake?

Elevated thyroid hormone concentration

Nerve damage

Diarrhea

Liver damage

27.

What percentage of total calories should come from fat sources?

15-20% of total daily calories

20-35% of total daily calories

35-45% of total daily calories

10-15% of total daily calories

28.

An individual should consume at least how many calories per day to ensure that they are receiving proper and adequate nutrition?

1,500 calories per day

1,200 calories per day

1,000 calories per day

800 calories per day

29.

What is the best way for an individual to minimize blood sugar fluctuations?

Eating larger, less frequent meals

Eating a high-fat diet

Eating a low-carbohydrate diet

Eating small, frequent meals

30.

Which of the following is a potential effect of ingesting too much iron?

Gastrointestinal irritation

Impaired immune function

Kidney stones

Fatigue

31.

All of the following are complete protein food sources except:

Macaroni and cheese

Yogurt and granola

Sunflower seeds

Whole egg

32.

Which of the following best describes Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)?

The recommended intake for specific nutrients

The estimated amount of a nutrient per day by which the needs of 50% of the population will be met

The estimated amount of a nutrient per day consumed by people assumed to be maintaining adequate nutrition

The estimated amount of a nutrient per day considered necessary for good health

33.

Which of the following is true regarding carbohydrates?

They contribute to the obesity epidemic

They cause diabetes

They supply energy

All types should be avoided

34.

Which of the following foods is highest on the glycemic index (GI)?

Rice cakes

Popcorn

Peanuts

Sweet potato

35.

All of the following foods are sources of trans-fatty acids except:

Margarine

Doughnuts

Fried chicken

Whole milk

36.

Which method of dietary assessment that can be provided by a personal trainer is considered the most valid?

Diet history

Dietary record

Dietary recall

37.

During the initial client consultation, within which form would a client find information about client-trainer confidentiality?

Informed consent

Medical questionnaire

Assumption of risk agreement

Client-trainer agreement

38.

Which of the following are valid indications for terminating an exercise testing session? I. Dizziness of the client II. Testing equipment failure III. Change in client's heart rhythm during test IV. Drop in blood pressure below baseline during test V. Client's request to stop

All of these

I, II, and V only

II, III, and IV only

39.

Which of the following variables are needed to calculate maximal oxygen consumption during the Rockport walking test? I. Body weight (in pounds) II. Age III. Time IV. Heart rate immediately after completion V. Gender

II, IV, and V only

I, III, and V only

All of these

40.

An excessive arch in the lower back when at rest is known as what?

Lordosis

Kyphosis

Scoliosis

Stenosis

41.

Which of the following is considered companionship support?

A babysitter

A friendly trainer

A workout buddy

A workout plan from the trainer

42.

How can a trainer help a client develop positive self-talk?

Offer emotional support during the client's frustrations

Train the client in how to identify and reframe negative thoughts

Help the client monitor their exercise habits

Educate the client on how negative thoughts are harmful

43.

How can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

Clarify misconceptions about exercise

Discuss the best program for them

Discuss progress and suggest changes to the training plan

Continue educating them concerning the benefits of exercise

44.

If a client's BMI is considered to be a healthy weight, what type of reference perspective is being used?

Health-referenced standard

Criterion-referenced standard

Norm-referenced standard

45.

What is the recommended way for an individual to self-monitor?

Keeping a daily written record

Weekly goal writing

Having daily conversations with their trainer

Engaging in positive self-talk regularly

46.

Which of the following cognitive-behavioral approaches can help distract an individual during strenuous exercise?

Association

Disassociation

Self-monitoring

Social support

47.

All of the following are generally included in a client-trainer agreement except:

Description of the cancellation policy

Documentation of services provided

A PAR-Q

Information on the payment process

48.

In which of the following types of dietary assessment does a client answer questions about typical eating habits and give an estimation of their weight over the last few years?

Dietary recall

Diet record

Diet history

49.

Of the different types of fats, which should be consumed the least, or not at all?

Polyunsaturated fats

Trans fats

Monounsaturated fats

50.

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

"Have you ever participated in high-intensity interval training?"

"Why do you want to begin working out?"

"Do you like resistance training?"

"Do you have any fitness and health goals?"

51.

An advanced client wants to improve his muscular power. Which of the following load and repetition schemes will be the most effective at helping to reach this training goal?

50% of 1RM for 12 repetitions

50% of 1RM for 4 repetitions

80% of 1RM for 8 repetitions

52.

What is a correct example of a resistance training superset in Phase 5 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

A maximal speed exercise followed by a maximal force production exercise after a 30-second rest interval

A maximal speed exercise followed immediately by a maximal force production exercise

A strength exercise followed immediately by a power exercise

A strength exercise followed by a power exercise after a 60-second recovery interval

53.

All of the following are true statements about physical activity for preadolescent youth (children) except:

A child's heart rate might exceed 200 beats/minute during vigorous exercise

Physical activity can enhance psychosocial well-being in children

Children have been shown to experience strength gains of 30 to 40% after just two to three months of resistance training

Resistance training is not safe for pre-adolescents under the age of 13

54.

When completing a resistance training superset in the power level of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, at what percentage of intensity should each exercise be performed?

65-75% 1 RM for strength, 45-60% 1 RM for power

45-60% 1 RM for strength, 75-85% 1 RM for power

75-85% 1 RM for strength, 45-60% 1 RM for power

85-100% 1 RM for strength, 30-45% 1 RM for power

55.

What type of resistance exercises are used in Phase 5?

30-45% intensity (power) for 3-5 sets with 8-10 repetitions

70-80% intensity (strength) supersets for 3-5 sets with 6-10 repetitions

85-100% intensity (strength) superset with 30-45% 1RM (power)

85-100% intensity (strength) for 6-8 sets with 1-5 repetitions

56.

What two neurological factors control muscle force and can increase with beginning a resistance training program?

Motor unit recruitment and the size principle

Motor unit recruitment and rate coding

Rate coding and connective tissue strength

Connective tissue strength and muscle size

57.

Regarding the principle of specificity, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate to include in a program for a client who is an Olympic-level archery competitor?

Single arm dumbbell rows

Barbell squats

Sprints on an exercise bicycle

Steady-state cardiovascular exercise on a treadmill

58.

Which of the following best describes a training macrocycle?

An overall training period that typically lasts for at least one year

A single workout

A week-long period of workouts

A portion of a training program made up of multiple microcycles

59.

Which of the following training modes can be used to improve stride length during sprint activities?

Resisted sprinting

Assisted sprinting

Alternating bounds

60.

How many repetitions of resistance exercise should a client complete during a Phase 3 hypertrophy workout?

8-12 repetitions

6-12 repetitions

1-5 repetitions

15-20 repetitions

61.

All of the following motions occur in the sagittal plane except:

Triceps push-downs

Front lunges

Side bends

Biceps curls

62.

When designing a workout program for a client in Phase 1 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, how many sets of exercise should there be?

5-7 sets

2-4 sets

1-3 sets

12-20 sets

63.

How many sets of plyometric movements should be included in Phase 2?

1-2

2-3

4-5

3-4

64.

How should the order of exercises be chosen for a client's workout program?

Exercises should be prioritized by power, strength, and then stabilization

Exercises should be prioritized by stabilization, strength, and then power

Exercises should be prioritized according to the individual's needs and training objectives

Exercises should be prioritized according to what the individual dislikes the most

65.

During a vertical loading session, how long should the rest period be between each exercise?

30 seconds

60 seconds

45 seconds

Little to no rest

66.

Which of the following is not a factor in improving body composition as a result of a consistent resistance training program?

Body areas that are resistance trained will lose fat

Decreased fat mass

Increased fat-free mass

67.

What is the repetition range in the stabilization endurance phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

12-20 repetitions

12-15 repetitions

15-25 repetitions

8-12 repetitions

68.

Which of the following is considered a power training exercise?

Squat on an unstable surface

Squat jump

Weighted squat

Single-leg squat

69.

An individual is interested in developing maximal muscular strength. In order to produce superior results, what phase of training should be completed immediately before beginning a training phase focused on muscular strength?

Hypertrophy

Muscular power

Muscular endurance

Muscular strength

70.

Which of the following is an advisable training session for a client recovering from a stroke?

Cycle ergometer at 30% VO2 max

Treadmill walking at 30% VO2 max

Cycle ergometer at 50% VO2 max

71.

Which of the following is true regarding a client's max heart rate?

A client's max heart rate is always the same, from birth until death

A client's max heart rate can be calculated with a margin of error of + / - 3 beats per minute by using the formula: 220 - age in years

With appropriate training, most clients will be able to safely exercise at an intensity that causes them to work at their max heart rate for an extended period of time

Determining a client's true max heart rate requires the client to exercise at their max capacity

72.

All of the following are low-volume training adaptations except:

Increased motor unit recruitment

Increased rate of force production

Increased muscle cross-sectional area

Increased motor unit synchronization

73.

High-velocity (power) adaptations are best achieved at what percentage of an individual's one repetition maximum?

50 to 70% of 1RM

30 to 45% of 1RM

75 to 85% of 1RM

85 to 100% of 1RM

74.

Which of the following is the best description of a superset?

One exercise immediately followed by another exercise with no rest

One exercise followed by another exercise with at least 60 seconds of rest

One exercise followed by another exercise with at least 30 seconds of rest

One upper body exercise followed by a lower body exercise with at least 30 seconds of rest

75.

Which of the following is the starting point before deciding clients can add horizontal and vertical components to their plyometric training?

Vertical jump equal to half of height

1RM squat greater than 1.5 times body weight

Proper landing position

76.

During the downward phase of the lat pull-down, where should the bar touch the body at the lowest position of the exercise?

Nipples

Chin

Clavicle

77.

Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

Lat pull-down

Push-up

Machine leg extension

Bench press

78.

During which of the following plyometric exercises is a countermovement not involved in correct execution?

Skip

Ankle flip

Standing long jump

79.

All of the following muscles contract during abdominal bracing except:

Rectus abdominis

Scalenes

Quadratus lumborum

External obliques

80.

Which of the following describes the most appropriate body position for running and walking?

Upright posture, upper body relaxed and positioned over the hips

Upright posture, upper body tight and positioned over the hips

Slightly flexed posture, upper body relaxed and positioned over the hips

81.

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint

The combination of flexibility and the nervous system's capability to effectively regulate range of motion

The capacity of the neuromuscular system to engage the proper muscles to produce and reduce force and stabilize the body

The tendency of the body to avoid range of motion hindrances due to overly tight muscles

82.

What movement is occurring in the elbows during the forward movement phase of the low pulley seated row?

Extension

The elbows should not move during this phase of the exercise, they should remain flexed

Flexion

The elbows should not move during this phase of the exercise, they should remain extended

83.

What is the correct body position for the torso during the acceleration phase of a sprint?

Leaning forward 5 degrees

Leaning forward 30 degrees

Vertical

Leaning forward 45 degrees

84.

In which plane of motion does the lateral tube walking dynamic stretch take place?

Frontal

Transverse

Longitudinal

Sagittal

85.

What is the amortization phase of plyometric training?

It occurs between the eccentric and strength phases and involves dynamic resistance

It occurs between the stabilization and strength phases and involves dynamic flexibility

It occurs between the eccentric and concentric phases and involves dynamic stabilization

It occurs between the strength and power phases and involves dynamic balance

86.

Which muscles should be statically stretched?

The major muscles at each kinetic chain checkpoint

Muscles that have been identified as overactive

All the muscles of the lower body

Muscles that have been identified as weak

87.

According to the principle of adaptation, which of the following is true?

Adaptation requires a constant change of technique

Adaptation manifests as the primary goal of exercise programs

Adaptation involves the need for client education

Adaptation allows constant improvements to occur

88.

Balance is influenced by all of the following factors except:

Inactivity

Injury

Age

Weight

89.

All of the following exercises can teach clients proper abdominal bracing techniques except:

Low prone iso-abs

Floor bridge

High prone iso-abs

Valsalva maneuver

90.

A client typically runs outdoors; however, uses the treadmill during poor weather. Which of the following changes would provide the necessary adjustment to get the same workout on the treadmill as she does outside?

Increase running duration by 5%

Increase running speed by 3%

Increase the grade of incline to 1%

Increase the grade of incline to 3%

91.

Why isn't profit the main driver of a personal training business?

Profit is the main driver of a personal training business

The source of profit will inevitably become neglected

Clients should be the main driver of a personal training business

Profit eventually becomes meaningless over time

92.

Which of the following is an aspect of in-home personal training?

The trainer owns a facility and is responsible for facility ordinances

The trainer must travel and use portable equipment

The trainer pays a fee to a health club to train clients

The trainer is paid an hourly wage with benefits

93.

In regard to exercise intensity, what should a fitness professional pay close attention to when working with new clients?

Whether the level of intensity causes the client to sweat

Whether the level of intensity is challenging enough

Whether the level of intensity causes enough discomfort for mild soreness the next day

Whether the level of intensity is appropriate for the client's physical and emotional state

94.

All of the following are benefits of using a mobile app in a personal training service except:

A communication app can help the trainer provide guidance and remote training to clients

A social network app can support the fitness professional with encouragement and inspiration

A programming app can eliminate the need for the trainer to create a training program

A tracking app can monitor the client's workload

95.

What is an aspect of independent contractor work as a trainer?

The trainer can target and market to a specific population, building their own business model

There are no overhead costs, but the trainer must transport any and all equipment

The trainer may be paid more if they have multiple fitness certifications, years of service, and/or high client retention

The trainer does not work regularly but on an as-needed basis

96.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for failure of a sale?

The trainer was not experienced enough

The potential client made illegitimate excuses

The program offered was too complex for the potential client

There was not enough value in the package offered

97.

Which of the following is a type of record that a fitness professional should keep?

A record of open-ended questions used in each initial interview

A record of how many clients are participating in certain exercise programs (e.g., strength or high-intensity interval training)

A record of clients' progresses in resistance training

A record of clients' physical responses to exercise

98.

A trainer's response to a sexual harassment issue should be:

Review any video footage available to determine whether the claims are accurate

Maintain a neutral position on the matter

Calm the alleged victim and report the incident to a manager

Comply with all local, state, federal, or provincial laws

99.

Who is responsible for administering directly supervised exercise during phase 2 of cardiac rehabilitation?

The fitness professional

The health promotion team

The physical therapist

The physician

100.

All of the following are benefits of full-time fitness club employees except:

401k

No marketing required

Vacation benefits

Medical benefits

1 out of 100

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

ISSA CPT Study Series

ISSA CPT Practice Exam Part 1

ISSA CPT Practice Exam Part 2