FREE NSCA Study Guide + NSCA Practice test + Flashcards for 2019

Q1:  which is the lowest the BMI can be for someone to have a positive risk factor CAD?
A1:  30 kg/m2

Q2:  the YMCA cycle ergometer test and the Astrand-Rhyming cycle ergometer test both have cadence for pedaling equal to what?
A2:  50 revolutions per minute

Q3:  what accounts for initial increases in volume of blood in the first days of an aerobic training program?
A3:  increased plasma volume

Q4:  what is not normal of outcome goals?
A4:  have a high amount of personal control

Q5:  what load and rep scheme is most appropriate for someone wanting to improve their strength?
A5:  4 repetitions at 90% of 1rm

Q6: which isn’t a common barbell bicep curl error?
A6: locking the elbows to the sides

Q7:  which joint movement isn’t happening in the upward movement of the bent over row?
A7:  elbow extension

Q8:  which isn’t a technique error that is common in the machine preacher curl exercise?
A8:  flex the handles to within 4 to 6 inches of the shoulders

Q9:  which area of the law will someone file a suit under if the client injures herself by slipping on a wet floor in the weight room?
A9: tort law

Q10:  what client has the highest risk stratification for CAD
A10:  a 70-year-old female with diabetes

Q11:  a client who is male has lost 2 pounds while working out. What is the minimum amount that the personal trainer needs to recommend for the post exercise fluid intake for the restoration of hydration levels?
A11:  at least 40 ounces

Q12:  what is a specific goal example
A12:  complete a 10 km race

Q13:  what is the primary directive of assigning loads to a client
A13:  training goal

Q14:  what kind of goal is bench pressing 300 pounds?
A14:  performance goal

Q15:  which grip is usually in the flat dumbbell fly?
A15:  neutral

Q16:  where should the spotter focus during the incline dumbbell chest press?
A16:  the wrists of the client

Q17:  which one is a description of good landing form in plyometrics?
A17:  shoulders over the knees

Q18:  if you are designing a new gym, how much square footage should we allow for one treadmill that is 6 feet long and 3 feet wide?
A18:  108 ft.²

Q19:  of the is, what makes the greatest contribution to the body’s daily energy expenditure?
A19:  resting metabolic rate

Q20:  of these, what is the most valid measurement of Mack’s lower body strength for clients?
A20:  one rep maximum leg press

Q21:  how many ground contacts per session should a 22-year-old athlete that is experienced with resistance training and Olympic lifts, perform in plyometrics
A21:  100-120

Q22:  due to chronic aerobic training, all of these increased in skeletal muscle, except
A22:  type II muscle fiber cross-sectional area

Q23:  which variation is used when a trainer assigns a client to hypertrophy training to optimize their muscle size prior to strength training?
A23:  sequenced variation

Q24:  which instructions should be given to someone to let the bar pass their face without contact in the barbell shoulder press
A24:  extend the neck slightly

Q25:  which is the correct position of the ankle pad in the leg curl
A25:  back of the heel just above the top of the shoe

Q26:  Which plyometric exercise doesn’t involve a countermovement for correct execution?
A26:  Ankle flip

Q27:  What strategy can minimize or avoid risk for a fitness facility?
A27:  Develop an emergency action plan

Q28:  Which one of these isn’t a warning sign for anorexia?
A28:  Diarrhea

Q29:  Which one is not measurement of mass distribution or fat mass?
A29:  Body mass index

Q30:  What is not responsible for strength gains for children?
A30:  Hypertrophy

Q31:  Which aerobic endurance training duration is best for someone who is severely deconditioned and a beginner?
A31:  Three bouts of 10 minutes with rest between each bout

Q32:  What doesn’t increase as an acute response to resistance training?
A32:  Glycogen concentration

Q33:  Which is a description of reaching the start position in the flat dumbbell fly?
A33:  Move the dumbbells from the chest to an extended elbow position at the sides of the chest

Q34:  Which static stretch involves pulling an elbow toward the opposing shoulder in order to stretch the posterior upper arm and back?
A34:  Behind-neck stretch

Q35:  Which is most important when a client steps onto the treadmill?
A35:  Hold the handrails

Q36:  What is the first step when you are planning and designing a new facility?
A36:  Forming a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise

Q37:  What reference perspective is used to compare the results when someone’s aerobic capacity is said as being in the top 20th percentile?
A37:  Norm-referenced standard

Q38: Which type of fat should be consumed in the least, or not consumed?
A38:  Trans fats

Q39:  During Submax exercise, which variables will stay the same or even regress for aerobic exercise performance, but improve during max exercise from chronic aerobic training?
A39:  Oxygen consumption

Q40:  What is determined by exercise intensity when you are making aerobic endurance programs? I. Exercise mode, II. Training duration, III. Training frequency, IV. Number of repetitions
A40:  II and III only

Q41:  Which modes of training may be used for improved stride length while sprinting?
A41:  Resisted sprinting

Q42:  Which exercise can be done with the common error “stutter-stepping during the backward movement phase”?
A42:  Forward lunge

Q43:  What is the max slope that should be done with a sprint?
A43:  Seven degrees

Q44:  Which action should the trainer take if a client is sitting on a pec deck with their hips higher than their knees?
A44:  Lower the seat

Q45:  What method could reduce noise in a new facility?
A45:  Use urethane-coated free weights

Q46:  Which of these is a good assessment for the aerobic capacity of a 22-year-old elite athlete?
A46:  1.5-mile run

Q47:  Which one falls outside of a personal trainer’s scope of practice?
A47:  Diagnose and treat training injuries

Q48:  Which body system Is responsible for male and female strength differences?
A48:   Endocrine

Q49:  At what height should an AED be put at?
A49:  Accessible to an individual in a wheelchair

Q50:  Which is not an effective way to minimize risk?
A50:  Selling supplements