FREE CSCS Practice Tests 2023 - 290+ Practice Questions

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Contents

NSCA CSCS Study Series
CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1): Practice Exam Part 1
CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1): Practice Exam Part 2
CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1) Quizzes
CSCS Practical/Applied (Section 2): Practice Exam Part 1
CSCS Practical/Applied (Section 2): Practice Exam Part 2
CSCS Practical/Applied (Section 2) Quizzes
ACSM Exam Tips
Practice CSCS Test Questions Example/Walkthrough
Top four most difficult CSCS exam answers

NSCA CSCS Study Series

CSCS Exam Prep Home Page
CSCS Study Plan
CSCS Study Guide
CSCS Practice Exams
CSCS Flashcards
CSCS Cheat Sheet
CSCS Exam FAQ

FREE CSCS Practice Tests [year] - 290+ Practice Questions 1

CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1): Practice Exam Part 1

Welcome to your CSCS (Section 1) Scientific Foundations Practice Exam (part 1)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual CSCS (Section 1) Exam with the same number of questions (80) and the same time allowed (90 minutes) as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (40) and time (45 minutes) for each part.

The CSCS (Section 1) Exam breakdown into Three (3) Parts, in this part of CSCS Practice Exam you will have 40 questions to complete in 45 minutes.

Here are the Three (3) Domains of CSCS (Section 1) with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Exercise Science [22 Questions] - 55%

2. Sports psychology [10 Questions] - 24%

3. Nutrition [08 Questions] - 21%

Please click NEXT to start your Free CSCS (Section 1) Scientific Foundations Practice Exam (part 1) right away.

Best of Luck!

With consistent aerobic training, what are the possible adaptations?

A. Rise in percentage of body fat

B. Rise in ATP stores

C. Rise in capillary density in muscle fibers

D. Hypertrophy of Type II fibers

The size principle refers to which of the following?

A. Mitochondrial density

B. Muscle fiber length

C. Angle of pennation

D. Motor unit recruitment order

The vertical jump is primarily performed in which anatomical plane?

A. Coronal

B. Sagittal

C. Transverse

D. Frontal

Which electrical occurrences are undetectable during a normal electrocardiogram (ECG)?

A. Atrial repolarization

B. Atrial depolarization

C. Ventricular repolarization

D. Ventricular depolarization

While skating, which of these hip movements depends on the gluteus maximus for a hockey athlete?

A. Hip flexion

B. Internal hip rotation

C. Hip Adduction

D. External hip rotation

What is the name given to the relative intensity of exercise at which blood lactate first begins to rise?

A. OBLA

B. Lactate accumulation

C. Lactate threshold

D. VO2 Max

The series elastic component (SEC) primarily reserves energy for plyometric action in what body structures?

A. Ligaments

B. Tendons

C. Joints

D. Muscle fibers

Which of these actions describes transverse plane abduction of the shoulder?

A. Volleyball dig

B. Backhand tennis stroke

C. Basketball pass

D. Boxing jab

Which of the following stimulates muscle spindles?

A. Muscle tension change

B. Muscle size change

C. Force output change

D. Muscle length change

10.

Which of the following refers to artificially increasing red blood cell mass?

A. Blood transfusion

B. Oxygen surplus

C. Blood doping

D. EPO

11.

Depletion of which of the following substrates induces fatigue?

A. Phosphagens

B. Branch Chain Amino Acids

C. Lactic acid

D. Glucose

12.

Which joint is stabilized by the following: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor?

A. Glenohumeral

B. Acromioclavicular

C. Scapulothoracic

D. Patellofemoral

13.

While performing resistance training, which structure of the knee is most vulnerable to injury?

A. ITB

B. Patella (knee cap) and surrounding structures

C. MCL

D. ACL

14.

Aerobic training increases which of the following?

A. Maximum RFD

B. Serum testosterone

C. Resting heart rate

D. ATP stores

15.

Relative to the latissimus dorsi, where is the trapezius positioned?

A. Superior

B. Dorsal

C. Posterior

D. Inferior

16.

What joint action occurs to increase the angle between the radius and ulna?

A. Hyper-extension

B. Flexion

C. Adduction

D. Extension

17.

How is the force-velocity curve influenced by a rise in rate of force development?

A. The curve is unaffected

B. Left shift of the curve

C. Shifts the curve to the right

D. Increases the peak of the curve

18.

What motion occurs at the knee during the late support phase of sprinting?

A. Flexion

B. Adduction

C. Extension

D. Abduction

19.

What is the starting position for the abdominal crunch?

A. Prone

B. Inverted

C. Supine

D. 5-point body contact

20.

Which type of stretching involves active muscle engagement and a rebound-like motion where the end position is not maintained?

A. Static stretch

B. Active stretch

C. PNF stretch

D. Ballistic stretch

21.

Which of the following is most likely to result in overtraining?

A. Achieving Lactate threshold

B. High volume, low-frequency, adequate rest

C. High volume, high-frequency, high-intensity

D. Combination training

22.

Which of the quadriceps muscles is positioned closest to the centerline of the body??

A. Rectus femoris

B. Vastus Intermedius

C. Vastus medialis

D. Vastus lateralis

23.

Which of the following is not a goal of sports psychology?

A. Measuring psychological phenomena

B. Investigation of the relationship between psychological variables and performance

C. Applying theoretical knowledge to improve athletic performance

D. Diagnosing athletes with suspected psychological disorders

24.

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Excitement, motivation, and confidence can be beneficial emotions

B. Excessive emotion in either direction can be harmful to performance

C. Maximal arousal is needed for optimal performance

D. Athletes must learn mental skills to accompany physical skills

25.

Arousal is characterized by which of the following?

A. Athlete heart rate and blood pressure elevated

B. Associated with unpleasant events

C. Occurs independently of hormonal levels

D. Arousal is always present on a broad continuum

26.

Anxiety manifested through physical symptoms such as elevated heart rate and tense muscles is known as which of the following?

A. Cognitive anxiety

B. Somatic anxiety

C. State anxiety

D. Trait anxiety

27.

Trait anxiety is defined as which of the following?

A. Lack of physical and psychological efficiency

B. Enduring personality disposition towards perceiving an environment as threatening

C. Acute subjective experience of apprehension and uncertainty

D. High degree of ego involvement and perceived threat to self-esteem

28.

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Stress is always associated with a decrease in performance

B. Stress represents a substantial imbalance between demand and response capability

C. Perception of stress largely determines the resulting performance effects

D. Stress generates arousal

29.

Drive theory proposes which of the following?

A. Arousal facilitates performance until an optimal level

B. Different people in different types of performances perform best with very different levels of arousal

C. Catastrophic decline in abilities, rather than gradual decline, can occur past a certain arousal level

D. As an individual's arousal or state anxiety increases, the performance also increases

30.

An athlete’s motivation to improve performance due to a love for the sport is known as which of the following?

A. Extrinsic motivation

B. Achievement motivation

C. Intrinsic motivation

D. Self-controlled practice

31.

A football coach waiving sprints due to substantial effort displayed in practice is an example of which of the following?

A. Positive reinforcement

B. Negative reinforcement

C. Positive punishment

D. Negative punishment

32.

Which of the following is an example of selective attention?

A. A soccer goalie ignoring the crowd and other players when blocking a penalty shot

B. A football kicker stretching his hamstrings and purposefully stepping towards the ball

C. An Olympic weightlifter visualizing the first pull

D. A boxing coach talking to his fighter between rounds

33.

Which of the following professionals is qualified to do a dietary needs analysis of individual athletes?

A. Sports dietician

B. Team physician

C. Sports nutrition coach

D. Athletic trainer

34.

Which of the following refers to the maximum average daily nutrient level not associated with adverse health effects?

A. Recommended dietary allowance

B. Adequate intake

C. Tolerable upper intake level

D. Estimated average requirement

35.

Which of the following nutrients is not typically deficient in most populations?

A. Potassium

B. Unsaturated fat

C. Fiber

D. Vitamin E

36.

Which of the following is considered an essential amino acid?

A. Alanine

B. Asparagine

C. Leucine

D. Glutamic acid

37.

Which of the following foods does not provide all of the essential amino acids?

A. Steak

B. Tuna

C. Tofu

D. Black beans

38.

What is the AMDR of protein for adults above 18 years old?

A. 5%-20% total caloric intake

B. 10%-35% total caloric intake

C. 10%-30% total caloric intake

D. 40%-50% total caloric intake

39.

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Excessively high protein intakes are associated with renal dysfunction

B. Supplemental protein can increase renal calcium excretion

C. Post-exercise protein can improve muscle protein synthesis

D. Healthy individuals can safely consume protein far above RDA values

40.

What isomer of glucose is typically found in candy and sports drinks?

A. Fructose

B. Maltose

C. Dextrose

D. Galactose

1 out of 40

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1): Practice Exam Part 2

Welcome to your CSCS (Section 1) Scientific Foundations Practice Exam (part 2)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual CSCS (Section 1) Exam with the same number of questions (80) and the same time allowed (90 minutes) as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (40) and time (45 minutes) for each part.

The CSCS (Section 1) Exam breakdown into Three (3) Parts, in this part of CSCS Practice Exam you will have 40 questions to complete in 45 minutes.

Here are the Three (3) Domains of CSCS (Section 1) with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Exercise Science [22 Questions] - 55%

2. Sports psychology [10 Questions] - 24%

3. Nutrition [08 Questions] - 21%

Please click NEXT to start your Free CSCS (Section 1) Scientific Foundations Practice Exam (part 2) right away.

Best of Luck!

The latissimus dorsi acts as an antagonist in which of the following?

A. Dead lift

B. Chin-ups

C. Dumbbell overhead press

D. Back squat

What type of reaction results in a release of energy?

A. Anabolic reaction

B. Exergonic reaction

C. Endergonic reaction

D. Delayed reaction

Which heart structure is most typically compromised in a sufferer of chronic tachycardia?

A. Conduction system

B. Bicuspid valve

C. Tricuspid valve

D. Atria

What muscle action results in muscle length shortening?

A. Isometric contraction

B. Concentric contraction

C. Eccentric contraction

D. A and B

Human Growth Hormone is secreted by which gland

A. Anterior pituitary gland

B. Pancreas

C. Testicles

D. Liver

An increase in muscle contraction rate, force production, and metabolic enzyme activity can be attributed to which 'flight or fight' mode hormone?

A. Catecholamines

B. Cortisol

C. Testosterone

D. Insulin

Which muscle acts as a synergist in the shoulder during a seated row?

A. Posterior deltoids

B. Biceps Brachii

C. Rhomboids

D. Anterior deltoids

Which of the following sports involves high recruitment of Type I and Type II fibers?

A. Volleyball

B. Distance cycling

C. Powerlifting

D. Soccer

Excess post-training oxygen consumption is also known as:

A. Oxygen surplus

B. Oxygen debt

C. Oxygen conservation

D. OBLA

10.

In the latissimus dorsi, which of the following actions involves separation of the Z-lines?

A. The barbell bent-over row lowering phase

B. The barbell bent-over row upward phase

C. The chin-up upward phase

D. Bicep curl lowering phase

11.

Motion of the chin away from the chest is described as which type of movement?

A. Abduction

B. Extension

C. Flexion

D. Adduction

12.

Use of the electron transport chain is most stimulated by which of these modes of training?

A. High intensity interval training

B. Long-distance aerobic training

C. Low volume training

D. Explosive movement near 1RM

13.

Name the arm action performed concentrically during a dumbbell lateral raise:

A. Adduction

B. Extension

C. Flexion

D. Abduction

14.

During the chin-up, the latissimus dorsi acts as the:

A. Agonist

B. Synergist

C. Antagonist

D. Stabilizer

15.

The rectus femoris has which of the following fiber arrangements?

A. Tripennate

B. Unipennate

C. Bipennate

D. Longitudinal

16.

Which of the following physiological factors would likely not decrease due to an aerobic respiratory training program?

A. ATP Stores

B. Active heart rate

C. Muscle mass

D. Muscle pain

17.

What type of training is defined by training with one set of each of the following: squats, push-ups, biceps curls, leg curls and chin-ups, in sequence with limited rest intervals between sets.

A. Interval training

B. Calisthenics training

C. Circuit training

D. Combination training

18.

During a cable triceps extension, which type of synovial joint is the primary?

A. Condyloid

B. Ball-and-socket

C. Saddle

D. Hinge

19.

While performing maximum effort squats, what is the role of the deep abdominal and diaphragm muscles?

A. To promote faster breathing for increase oxygen uptake

B. To improve lung capacity

C. To increase intra-abdominal pressure

D. To promote maximal recruitment

20.

While training to optimize strength of the knee. Which of the following exercises should a rowing athlete add to their program?

A. Romanian Deadlift

B. Leg extension

C. Leg curl

D. Lunge

21.

During a Romanian deadlift, which muscles are synergists?

A. Soleus

B. Erector spinae

C. Gluteus maximus

D. Gastrocnemius

22.

Which movement's concentric phase causes a synergistic action of the middle trapezius?

A. Incline DB press

B. Weighted lunge

C. Bent-over barbell row

D. Bicep curl

23.

Progressive muscular relaxation is characterized by which of the following?

A. Deep inhalations and controlled exhalations

B. Focusing on a sense of warmth and heaviness in a muscle group

C. Maximally tensing and consciously relaxing a muscle

D. A drop in resting heart rate

24.

Which of the following methodologies would be appropriate for an apprehensive boxer returning to competition after suffering a knockout blow in a previous event?

A. Mental imagery

B. Progressive muscular relaxation

C. Autogenic training

D. Systematic desensitization

25.

Under what circumstances is enhancing arousal appropriate?

A. During the final field goal kick of the Superbowl

B. Before performing a complex skill

C. During a minimal pressure practice game

D. As part of a daily morning ritual

26.

A gymnast is confident in her ability to complete a tumbling routine. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Self-efficacy

B. Self-talk

C. Enhanced arousal

D. Flow-state

27.

What are the most useful goals for a specific practice session?

A. Outcome goals

B. Process goals

C. Short-term goals

D. Long-term goals

28.

To improve her 400m dash, an athlete attempts to elevate her heart rate to 160BPM for 25 minutes during afternoon practice. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Short-term goal

B. Long-term goal

C. Process goal

D. Outcome goal

29.

Which of the following is an outcome goal?

A. Performing a snatch with perfect form

B. Running a sub 4-minute mile

C. Getting first place in a national championship

D. Having a positive attitude during team practice

30.

Which of the following is an example of simplification?

A. A novice athlete using a PVC pipe to practice the back squat before attempting the movement with a barbell

B. An intermediate athlete performing a depth jump to a box followed by a depth jump with lateral movement

C. An elite sprinter visualizing an explosive takeoff from the starting blocks

D. An Olympic lifter practicing the individual components of the clean-and-jerk

31.

A boxer practicing a jab, then a jab-cross, followed by a jab-cross-hook is an example of which of the following?

A. Simplification

B. Progressive-part training

C. Pure-part training

D. Fractionalization

32.

Which of the following is an example of variable practice?

A. Lateral cutting following by box jumps following by agility ladder drills

B. Practicing a body punch then practicing a head punch

C. Observing training footage and practicing accordingly

D. Repeated running at 80% VO2 max for 10 seconds followed by a 30-second jog

33.

Which of the following is not an essential nutrient?

A. Leucine

B. DHA

C. EPA

D. Glucose

34.

Which of the following has the highest glycemic load?

A. 5 grams of candy

B. 250 grams of whole wheat bread

C. 50 grams of steak

D. 80 grams of white bread

35.

To increase dietary fiber intake, an athlete should consume more of the following:

A. Plant-based protein

B. Fruits and vegetables

C. Lean chicken and steak

D. Tuna

36.

What is the DRI for fiber in adult men?

A. 15g-25g

B. 20g-29g

C. 30g-38g

D. 40g-50g

37.

Which of the following athletes has the highest carbohydrate requirement?

A. 100m sprinter

B. Olympic lifter

C. Golfer

D. Ultramarathoner

38.

Approximately how much carbohydrate should a powerlifter consume each day?

A. 5-6g/kg/bw/day

B. 8-10g/kg/bw/day

C. 3-4g/kg/bw/day

D. 10-15g/kg/bw/day

39.

Athletes can most effectively meet Omega-3 requirements with the following food:

A. Flax seeds

B. Herring

C. Steak

D. Kale

40.

Which of the following foods is highest in saturated fat?

A. Coconut oil

B. Fish oil

C. Avocado oil

D. Olive oil

1 out of 40

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1) Quizzes

Domain 1: Exercise Science

Covered in this domain will be:

Anatomy and Physiology
Biomechanics
Bioenergetics and Metabolism
Neuroendocrine Physiology
Physiological Adaptations
Differences Among Athletes
Knowledge of Scientific Research and Statistics

Welcome to your CSCS CPT (Section 1) Practice Quizzes.

Domain 1: Exercise Science. (30 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free CSCS Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

Which of the following is most likely to result in overtraining?

A. Achieving Lactate threshold

B. High volume, low-frequency, adequate rest

C. High volume, high-frequency, high-intensity

D. Combination training

Which of these actions describes transverse plane abduction of the shoulder?

A. Volleyball dig

B. Backhand tennis stroke

C. Basketball pass

D. Boxing jab

Which of the following refers to artificially increasing red blood cell mass?

A. Blood transfusion

B. Oxygen surplus

C. Blood doping

D. EPO

Name the arm action performed concentrically during a dumbbell lateral raise:

A. Adduction

B. Extension

C. Flexion

D. Abduction

Excess post-training oxygen consumption is also known as:

A. Oxygen surplus

B. Oxygen debt

C. Oxygen conservation

D. OBLA

Which electrical occurrences are undetectable during a normal electrocardiogram (ECG)?

A. Atrial repolarization

B. Atrial depolarization

C. Ventricular repolarization

D. Ventricular depolarization

What motion occurs at the knee during the late support phase of sprinting?

A. Flexion

B. Adduction

C. Extension

D. Abduction

Which joint is stabilized by the following: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor?

A. Glenohumeral

B. Acromioclavicular

C. Scapulothoracic

D. Patellofemoral

What is the name given to the relative intensity of exercise at which blood lactate first begins to rise?

A. OBLA

B. Lactate accumulation

C. Lactate threshold

D. VO2 Max

10.

An increase in muscle contraction rate, force production, and metabolic enzyme activity can be attributed to which 'flight or fight' mode hormone?

A. Catecholamines

B. Cortisol

C. Testosterone

D. Insulin

11.

What muscle action results in muscle length shortening?

A. Isometric contraction

B. Concentric contraction

C. Eccentric contraction

D. A and B

12.

What is the starting position for the abdominal crunch?

A. Prone

B. Inverted

C. Supine

D. 5-point body contact

13.

The latissimus dorsi acts as an antagonist in which of the following?

A. Dead lift

B. Chin-ups

C. Dumbbell overhead press

D. Back squat

14.

What type of reaction results in a release of energy?

A. Anabolic reaction

B. Exergonic reaction

C. Endergonic reaction

D. Delayed reaction

15.

Motion of the chin away from the chest is described as which type of movement?

A. Abduction

B. Extension

C. Flexion

D. Adduction

16.

While performing maximum effort squats, what is the role of the deep abdominal and diaphragm muscles?

A. To promote faster breathing for increase oxygen uptake

B. To improve lung capacity

C. To increase intra-abdominal pressure

D. To promote maximal recruitment

17.

Which heart structure is most typically compromised in a sufferer of chronic tachycardia?

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A. Conduction system

B. Bicuspid valve

C. Tricuspid valve

D. Atria

18.

Relative to the latissimus dorsi, where is the trapezius positioned?

A. Superior

B. Dorsal

C. Posterior

D. Inferior

19.

Which of the quadriceps muscles is positioned closest to the centerline of the body??

A. Rectus femoris

B. Vastus Intermedius

C. Vastus medialis

D. Vastus lateralis

20.

Which of the following sports involves high recruitment of Type I and Type II fibers?

A. Volleyball

B. Distance cycling

C. Powerlifting

D. Soccer

21.

Which muscle acts as a synergist in the shoulder during a seated row?

A. Posterior deltoids

B. Biceps Brachii

C. Rhomboids

D. Anterior deltoids

22.

During a Romanian deadlift, which muscles are synergists?

A. Soleus

B. Erector spinae

C. Gluteus maximus

D. Gastrocnemius

23.

What type of training is defined by training with one set of each of the following: squats, push-ups, biceps curls, leg curls and chin-ups, in sequence with limited rest intervals between sets.

A. Interval training

B. Calisthenics training

C. Circuit training

D. Combination training

24.

How is the force-velocity curve influenced by a rise in rate of force development?

A. The curve is unaffected

B. Left shift of the curve

C. Shifts the curve to the right

D. Increases the peak of the curve

25.

What joint action occurs to increase the angle between the radius and ulna?

A. Hyper-extension

B. Flexion

C. Adduction

D. Extension

26.

Which type of stretching involves active muscle engagement and a rebound-like motion where the end position is not maintained?

A. Static stretch

B. Active stretch

C. PNF stretch

D. Ballistic stretch

27.

Aerobic training increases which of the following?

A. Maximum RFD

B. Serum testosterone

C. Resting heart rate

D. ATP stores

28.

The size principle refers to which of the following?

A. Mitochondrial density

B. Muscle fiber length

C. Angle of pennation

D. Motor unit recruitment order

29.

The rectus femoris has which of the following fiber arrangements?

A. Tripennate

B. Unipennate

C. Bipennate

D. Longitudinal

30.

Human Growth Hormone is secreted by which gland

A. Anterior pituitary gland

B. Pancreas

C. Testicles

D. Liver

1 out of 30

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

Domain 2: Sports Psychology

Covered in this domain will be:

Psychological Foundations of Performance
Motor Learning and Skill Acquisition Techniques
Mental Health Issues in Athletes

Welcome to your CSCS CPT (Section 1) Practice Quizzes.

Domain 2: Sports psychology. (30 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free CSCS Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

Trait anxiety is defined as which of the following?

A. Lack of physical and psychological efficiency

B. Enduring personality disposition towards perceiving an environment as threatening

C. Acute subjective experience of apprehension and uncertainty

D. High degree of ego involvement and perceived threat to self-esteem

Which of the following is not a goal of sports psychology?

A. Measuring psychological phenomena

B. Investigation of the relationship between psychological variables and performance

C. Applying theoretical knowledge to improve athletic performance

D. Diagnosing athletes with suspected psychological disorders

Progressive muscular relaxation is characterized by which of the following?

A. Deep inhalations and controlled exhalations

B. Focusing on a sense of warmth and heaviness in a muscle group

C. Maximally tensing and consciously relaxing a muscle

D. A drop in resting heart rate

Which of the following methodologies would be appropriate for an apprehensive boxer returning to competition after suffering a knockout blow in a previous event?

A. Mental imagery

B. Progressive muscular relaxation

C. Autogenic training

D. Systematic desensitization

Drive theory proposes which of the following?

A. Arousal facilitates performance until an optimal level

B. Different people in different types of performances perform best with very different levels of arousal

C. Catastrophic decline in abilities, rather than gradual decline, can occur past a certain arousal level

D. As an individual's arousal or state anxiety increases, the performance also increases

A football coach waiving sprints due to substantial effort displayed in practice is an example of which of the following?

A. Positive reinforcement

B. Negative reinforcement

C. Positive punishment

D. Negative punishment

Which of the following is an example of selective attention?

A. A soccer goalie ignoring the crowd and other players when blocking a penalty shot

B. A football kicker stretching his hamstrings and purposefully stepping towards the ball

C. An Olympic weightlifter visualizing the first pull

D. A boxing coach talking to his fighter between rounds

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Stress is always associated with a decrease in performance

B. Stress represents a substantial imbalance between demand and response capability

C. Perception of stress largely determines the resulting performance effects

D. Stress generates arousal

Under what circumstances is enhancing arousal appropriate?

A. During the final field goal kick of the Superbowl

B. Before performing a complex skill

C. During a minimal pressure practice game

D. As part of a daily morning ritual

10.

Arousal is characterized by which of the following?

A. Athlete heart rate and blood pressure elevated

B. Associated with unpleasant events

C. Occurs independently of hormonal levels

D. Arousal is always present on a broad continuum

11.

To improve her 400m dash, an athlete attempts to elevate her heart rate to 160BPM for 25 minutes during afternoon practice. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Short-term goal

B. Long-term goal

C. Process goal

D. Outcome goal

12.

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Excitement, motivation, and confidence can be beneficial emotions

B. Excessive emotion in either direction can be harmful to performance

C. Maximal arousal is needed for optimal performance

D. Athletes must learn mental skills to accompany physical skills

13.

Which of the following is an outcome goal?

A. Performing a snatch with perfect form

B. Running a sub 4-minute mile

C. Getting first place in a national championship

D. Having a positive attitude during team practice

14.

Which of the following is an example of simplification?

A. A novice athlete using a PVC pipe to practice the back squat before attempting the movement with a barbell

B. An intermediate athlete performing a depth jump to a box followed by a depth jump with lateral movement

C. An elite sprinter visualizing an explosive takeoff from the starting blocks

D. An Olympic lifter practicing the individual components of the clean-and-jerk

15.

Which of the following is an example of variable practice?

A. Lateral cutting following by box jumps following by agility ladder drills

B. Practicing a body punch then practicing a head punch

C. Observing training footage and practicing accordingly

D. Repeated running at 80% VO2 max for 10 seconds followed by a 30-second jog

16.

An athlete’s motivation to improve performance due to a love for the sport is known as which of the following?

A. Extrinsic motivation

B. Achievement motivation

C. Intrinsic motivation

D. Self-controlled practice

17.

Anxiety manifested through physical symptoms such as elevated heart rate and tense muscles is known as which of the following?

A. Cognitive anxiety

B. Somatic anxiety

C. State anxiety

D. Trait anxiety

18.

What are the most useful goals for a specific practice session?

A. Outcome goals

B. Process goals

C. Short-term goals

D. Long-term goals

19.

A boxer practicing a jab, then a jab-cross, followed by a jab-cross-hook is an example of which of the following?

A. Simplification

B. Progressive-part training

C. Pure-part training

D. Fractionalization

20.

A gymnast is confident in her ability to complete a tumbling routine. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Self-efficacy

B. Self-talk

C. Enhanced arousal

D. Flow-state

21.

A coach tells an athlete to squat to depth and “split-the-floor,” but provides no further instruction. This is an example of:

A. Explicit instruction

B. Discovery

C. Guided discovery

D. Augmented feedback

22.

Which of the following is an example of intrinsic feedback?

A. A coach informing an athlete of his 5-0-5 time

B. A powerlifter watching old competition footage

C. A cyclist observing his power output while on a stationary bike

D. An Olympic lifter feeling his core activate prior to the first pull

23.

Which of the following feedback timings would be most beneficial to the overall learning process?

A. Feedback concurrent with the task execution

B. Feedback provided between repetitions of a squat

C. Feedback provided at the end of practice

D. Feedback provided before practice

24.

Filming practice and reviewing footage is an example of which of the following?

A. Knowledge of performance

B. Augmented feedback

C. Intrinsic feedback

D. Knowledge of results

25.

Which of the following is not a component of the ideal performance state?

A. A sense of improved strength and power

B. Absence of fear

C. A narrow focus of attention

D. A sense of personal control

26.

Which of the following is not a component of sport psychology?

A. Measuring psychological phenomena

B. Assessing athletes for psychological disorders

C. Investigating the link between psychological variables and performance

D. Applying theoretical knowledge to improve athletic perfomance

27.

Which of the following is a metric for measuring arousal?

A. Catecholamine levels

B. Circulating testosterone

C. Achievement motivation

D. Protein turnover rate

28.

A personality disposition towards perceiving an environment as threatening is known as:

A. Cognitive anxiety

B. State anxiety

C. Somatic anxiety

D. Trait anxiety

29.

Fear of consequences of failure may lead to which of the following?

A. Eustress

B. Psychological efficiency

C. Psychological inefficiency

D. Trait anxiety

30.

Which of the following proposes a linear relationship between arousal and performance?

A. Inverted-U theory

B. Individual zones of optimal functioning

C. Drive theory

D. Reversal theory

1 out of 30

Time is Up!

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Domain 3: Nutrition

Covered in this domain will be:

Nutritional Factors Affecting Health
Nutrition to Maximize Performance
Common Supplements and Performance-Enhancing Substances

Welcome to your CSCS CPT (Section 1) Practice Quizzes.

Domain 3: Nutrition. (30 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free CSCS Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

Which of the following is not an essential nutrient?

A. Leucine

B. DHA

C. EPA

D. Glucose

What is the AMDR of protein for adults above 18 years old?

A. 5%-20% total caloric intake

B. 10%-35% total caloric intake

C. 10%-30% total caloric intake

D. 40%-50% total caloric intake

Which of the following foods does not provide all of the essential amino acids?

A. Steak

B. Tuna

C. Tofu

D. Black beans

Which of the following foods is highest in saturated fat?

A. Coconut oil

B. Fish oil

C. Avocado oil

D. Olive oil

Which of the following nutrients is not typically deficient in most populations?

A. Potassium

B. Unsaturated fat

C. Fiber

D. Vitamin E

Which of the following professionals is qualified to do a dietary needs analysis of individual athletes?

A. Sports dietician

B. Team physician

C. Sports nutrition coach

D. Athletic trainer

Approximately how much carbohydrate should a powerlifter consume each day?

A. 5-6g/kg/bw/day

B. 8-10g/kg/bw/day

C. 3-4g/kg/bw/day

D. 10-15g/kg/bw/day

Which of the following refers to the maximum average daily nutrient level not associated with adverse health effects?

A. Recommended dietary allowance

B. Adequate intake

C. Tolerable upper intake level

D. Estimated average requirement

Which of the following athletes has the highest carbohydrate requirement?

A. 100m sprinter

B. Olympic lifter

C. Golfer

D. Ultramarathoner

10.

To increase dietary fiber intake, an athlete should consume more of the following:

A. Plant-based protein

B. Fruits and vegetables

C. Lean chicken and steak

D. Tuna

11.

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Excessively high protein intakes are associated with renal dysfunction

B. Supplemental protein can increase renal calcium excretion

C. Post-exercise protein can improve muscle protein synthesis

D. Healthy individuals can safely consume protein far above RDA values

12.

Which of the following has the highest glycemic load?

A. 5 grams of candy

B. 250 grams of whole wheat bread

C. 50 grams of steak

D. 80 grams of white bread

13.

Athletes can most effectively meet Omega-3 requirements with the following food:

A. Flax seeds

B. Herring

C. Steak

D. Kale

14.

What isomer of glucose is typically found in candy and sports drinks?

A. Fructose

B. Maltose

C. Dextrose

D. Galactose

15.

Which of the following is considered an essential amino acid?

A. Alanine

B. Asparagine

C. Leucine

D. Glutamic acid

16.

What is the DRI for fiber in adult men?

A. 15g-25g

B. 20g-29g

C. 30g-38g

D. 40g-50g

17.

To reduce blood cholesterol, athletes should do which of the following?

A. Increase the consumption of red meat

B. Decrease consumption of fruit

C. Replace saturated fat with unsaturated fat

D. Increase consumption of tropical oil

18.

Which of the following substances in blood is not associated with increased heart-disease risk?

A. High LDL

B. High VLDL

C. High HDL

D. High triglycerides

19.

Which of the following nutrients is the most energy-dense?

A. Intramuscular fatty acids

B. Glycogen

C. Glucose

D. Branched-chain amino acids

20.

Which of the following vitamins is associated with liver damage when taken in excess amounts?

A. Vitamin C

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin A

21.

Calcification of blood vessels and heart tissue is associated with excess consumption of which of the following substances?

A. Calcium supplements

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin E

D. Cholesterol

22.

Which of the following water-soluble vitamins can be stored in the liver?

A. Vitamin B12

B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin A

23.

Which of the following foods provides the most heme iron?

A. Spinach

B. Iron supplements

C. Ground beef

D. Grains

24.

To increase iron absorption, athletes should consume plant-based iron with which of the following?

A. Vitamin D

B. Olive oil

C. Vitamin C

D. Calcium

25.

Which of the following symptoms is not associated with anemia?

A. Weakness

B. Poor concentration

C. Pica

D. Decreased BMD

26.

Which of the following food categories can help athletes meet calcium intake goals?

A. Dairy

B. Vegetables

C. Fruit

D. Fish

27.

Which of the following foods would be considered the least nutrient-dense?

A. Milk

B. White bread

C. Oranges

D. Broccoli

28.

At what point of dehydration do performance decreases begin to occur?

A. 2-3% of weight lost in water

B. 1-2% weight lost in water

C. 4-5% weight lost in water

D. 8% weight lost in water

29.

What is the proper USG to ensure adequate hydration?

A. Less than 1.010

B. Less than 1.020

C. Less than 1.030

D. Greater than 1.050

30.

How much fluid should a 132-pound adolescent drink during training to ensure adequate hydration status?

A. 5oz every 30 minutes

B. 9oz every 30 minutes

C. 9oz every 20 minutes

D. 1.5L per kg lost

1 out of 30

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NSCA CSCS Study Series

CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1): Practice Exam Part 1

CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1): Practice Exam Part 2

CSCS Scientific Foundations (Section 1) Quizzes

Domain 1: Exercise Science

Exclusive PTP CPT Offers

Domain 2: Sports Psychology

Domain 3: Nutrition

CSCS Practical/Applied (Section 2): Practice Exam Part 1