FREE NASM Practice Test 2023 - 240+ CPT Practice Questions

After you have taken the full NASM practice exam above, you will get a better understanding of which domains you are strong and weak in. Use the domain quizzes below to focus on the NASM practice questions from your weakest areas.

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Free NASM Practice Quizzes

Domain 1: Professional Development and Responsibility

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 1: The Modern State of Health and Fitness
Chapter 2: The Personal Training Profession

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Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 1: Professional development and responsibility. (20 questions)

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Best of Luck!

Which of the following would be appropriate in approaching a potential client who is performing an exercise incorrectly?

A. A. Telling them you know the right way to perform the exercise

B. B. Recommending a better way of performing the exercise

C. C. Asking if you can make a suggestion

D. D. Telling them about a potential benefit of the exercise

Which of the following is considered a niche in the training business?

A. A. Women's fitness

B. B. Private gym

C. C. Independent contracting

D. D. Small group training

Which additional certification is an NASM-certified personal trainer required to have?

A. A. CPR

B. B. NCCA

C. C. First Aid

D. D. Undergraduate degree

If a personal trainer develops a niche service, which of the following marketing P's does that fall under?

A. A. Place

B. B. Promotion

D. D. Product

Can sexual harassment occur between two women?

A. A. Yes, sexual harassment can occur with people of the same sex, and women can be harassers

B. B. No, sexual harassment can occur with people of the same sex, but women cannot be harassers

C. C. No, sexual harassment cannot occur with people of the same sex, and women cannot be harassers

D. D. No, sexual harassment cannot occur with people of the same sex, although women can be harassers

When a potential client says yes to a personal training package, when should their first appointment be scheduled?

A. A. Within 2 weeks

B. B. Within 48 hours

C. C. Within 24 hours

D. D. Within 1 week

A health and fitness professional can do all of the following except:

A. A. Provide post-rehabilitation services

B. B. Prescribe diets

C. C. Screen clients for exercise limitations

D. D. Act as a coach

Which of the following is an aspect of in-home personal training?

A. A. The trainer pays a fee to a health club in order to train clients

B. B. The trainer is paid an hourly wage with benefits

C. C. The trainer owns a facility and is responsible for facility ordinances

D. D. The trainer must travel and use portable equipment

How should the trainer contact a potential client after asking them for their contact information?

A. A. Call the potential client 2 to 3 days later

B. B. Approach the client at their next gym appearance

C. C. Email the client a few days after meeting with them

D. D. Mail a handwritten card within 24 hours

10.

How should a goal for new clients be calculated?

A. A. Calculate the closing percentage Determine how many more clients are needed to reach full-time status Estimate how many potential clients should be contacted every hour

B. B. Calculate how many sessions per year are required to reach a monetary goal Identify the closing percentage Reach out to 5 contacts every day until the goal is reached

C. C. Calculate how many sessions per week are required to reach a monetary goal, Calculate how many clients need to sign up to reach that number, Establish a timeline for contacting potential clients to reach that number

D. D. Calculate how many sessions per week are required to reach a monetary goal Reach out to 5 contacts every day until the goal is reached

11.

In which situation does a personal trainer have a percentage of their session fees taken?

A. A. When working as an independent contractor for a commercial fitness club

B. B. When working as a full-time employee for a commercial fitness club

C. C. When owning a facility

D. D. When providing in-home personal training services

12.

All of the following are examples of good customer service except:

A. A. Offering members a towel or some water

B. B. Giving advice to an individual who declined help

C. C. Making eye contact and smiling

D. D. Introducing yourself by name

13.

After the initial contact, what is the appropriate amount of time to wait before calling to follow up with a member?

A. A. 4 days

B. B. 2 days

C. C. 1 week

D. D. 24 hours

14.

What is an aspect of independent contractor work as a trainer?

A. A. There are no overhead costs, but the trainer must transport any and all equipment

B. B. The trainer may be paid more if they have multiple fitness certifications, years of service, and/or high client retention

C. C. The trainer can target and market to a specific population, building their own business model

D. D. The trainer does not work regularly, but on an as-needed basis

15.

Which of these is the initial reason for remaining within one's scope of practice?

A. A. To avoid injury and liability

B. B. To become a high-quality trainer

C. C. To ensure a long career

D. D. To protect the gym's reputation

16.

Why is uncompromising customer service an important aspect of being a trainer?

A. A. It provides an exceptionally valuable experience to the client

B. B. It is necessary for the personal trainer to be considered ethical

C. C. It is necessary to develop your reputation as a decent trainer

D. D. It shows that you are unwilling to compromise on your personal beliefs

17.

All of the following are key characteristics of an independent fitness professional except:

A. A. Need to maintain and transport equipment

B. B. Having little control over hours worked

C. C. No employment benefits such as 401k or subsidized health insurance

D. D. Ability to develop unique, custom, and creative programming

18.

Which of the following is an appropriate pricing strategy for training?

A. A. Slightly more than is comfortable for potential clients

B. B. On par with prices in a different area

C. C. Slightly more than competitors' prices

D. D. On par with competitors' prices

19.

The NASM scope of practice allows a certified personal trainer to do all of the following except:

A. A. Provide guidance that supports client goals

B. B. Design safe, effective exercise and conditioning programs

C. C. Make nutritional recommendations

D. D. Diagnose or treat areas of pain

20.

Which skills should new fitness professionals focus on developing?

A. A. People skills

B. B. Program design skills

C. C. Basic movement skills

D. D. Assessment skills

1 out of 20

Time is Up!

Time's up

Domain 2: Client Relations and Behavioral Coaching

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 3: Psychology of Exercise
Chapter 4: Behavioral Coaching

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Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 2: Client relations and behavioral coaching. (20 questions)

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Best of Luck!

Which of the following best describes instrumental support?

A. A. Individuals or groups that remove tangible barriers to exercise, such as transportation

B. B. The support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern

C. C. The availability of family, friends, and coworkers to exercise with the client

D. D. The support that includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise

Does exercise affect depression and anxiety?

A. A. It improves anxiety, but not depression

B. B. It improves anxiety, but not depression

C. C. It does not improve depression or anxiety

D. D. It improves both anxiety and depression

When you're making a SMART goal, how should the "S" be defined?

A. A. It should be specific enough that the trainer knows what it implies

B. B. It should be specific enough that the client can remember it

C. C. It should be specific enough that any trainer could understand it

D. D. It should be specific enough that anyone can understand it

In SMART goals, how is "realistic" defined?

A. A. The trainer is sure the client can achieve the goal

B. B. The client is both willing and able to work toward the goal

C. C. This type of goal is completely new to the client

D. D. The goal is something the client is capable of doing

Which of the following are good examples of short-term goals?

A. A. Perform 100 push-ups every day for six months

B. B. Become a size 8 and fit into old clothes

C. C. This week, research three reasons to exercise to support motivation

D. D. Lose 20 pounds for high school reunion

How can an individual apply the M in the goal-setting acronym SMART?

A. A. By creating a timeline for the goal's completion

B. B. By not making the goal too challenging

C. C. By making the goal quantifiable

D. D. By making the goal something they are willing and able to work toward

How can positive self-talk support client success?

A. A. It forces the client to embrace exercise

B. B. It improves the client's belief in their abilities

C. C. It allows the client to succeed

D. D. It has no effect on client success

Why should a personal trainer ask permission of a client before educating them?

A. A. Permission allows the trainer to fully speak their mind and share details of training

B. B. A trainer should never share information with anyone without permission

C. C. The client is paying for training and a thorough fitness training plan, not education

D. D. It improves the trainer-client relationship by reducing the imposing image of the trainer

What is the difference between process goals and product goals?

A. A. Process goals can be predictively achieved, and product goals may or may not be achieved

B. B. Process goals give the client something to work toward, and product goals are something to do in the moment

C. C. Process goals can always be achieved, and product goals are rarely achieved

D. D. Process goals are only achieved with careful assessment, and product goals are simple to achieve

10.

All of the following are barriers to establishing rapport except:

A. A. Not being an active listener

B. B. Being disinterested

C. C. Asking probing questions

D. D. Interrupting too often

11.

What are SMART goals?

A. A. Set Modest Accessible Restricted Temperate

B. B. Sensible Measurable Appropriate Rational Thorough

C. C. Specific Measurable Attainable Realistic Timely

D. D. Significant Material Assessable Reachable Thoughtful

12.

In which stage of change is a client who has been training for six months and is now pursuing their fitness goals without the assistance of a trainer?

A. A. Preparation

B. B. Contemplation

C. C. Maintenance

D. D. Action

13.

How can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

A. A. Continue educating them concerning the benefits of exercise

B. B. Discuss progress and suggest changes to the training plan

C. C. Discuss the best program for them

D. D. Clarify misconceptions about exercise

14.

All of the following are examples of behavior strategies except:

A. A. Self-monitoring

B. B. Self-management

C. C. Goal setting

D. D. Positive self-talk

15.

When discussing SMART goals, how would the "attainable" component be described?

A. A. It means the goal is challenging but reasonably accessible

B. B. It means the goal is easy to attain

C. C. It means the client will definitely succeed

D. D. It means it is possible that the goal can be achieved

16.

In order to fulfill the R of the goal-setting SMART acronym, what does an individual need to do?

A. A. Make sure the goal can actually be achieved

B. B. Make the goal challenging, but not extreme

C. C. Establish a way the goal can be quantified

D. D. Decide on a specific date of completion

17.

What is the most important component of a fitness goal?

A. A. The trainer and client should agree that the goal is achievable

B. B. The client should create the goal based on their desire for a certain outcome

C. C. The trainer and client should agree that the goal is important

D. D. The trainer should create the goal based on what is beneficial for the client

18.

How is parental support beneficial for clients?

A. A. Parents may try to make exercise unpleasant for their children

B. B. Parents lead by example, and their views on exercise are often passed down to their children

C. C. Parents can make their children exercise

D. D. Parents can tell their children to exercise, which will result in the children's consistency

19.

How might a trainer identify a client who has social physique anxiety?

A. A. The client wears baggy clothing

B. B. The client looks in the mirror frequently

C. C. The client expresses admiration for the trainer's level of fitness

D. D. The client has trouble performing the exercises

20.

Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question?

A. A. "What does a typical day look like for you?"

B. B. "What are your fitness and health goals?"

C. C. "What do you do for a living?"

D. D. "Do you exercise often?"

1 out of 20

Time is Up!

Time's up

Domain 3: Basic and Applied Sciences and Nutritional Concepts

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 5: The Nervous, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
Chapter 6: The Cardiorespiratory, Endocrine, and Digestive Systems
Chapter 7: Human Movement Science
Chapter 8: Exercise Metabolism and Bioenergetics
Chapter 9: Nutrition
Chapter 10: Supplementation

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Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 3: Basic and applied sciences and nutritional concepts. (20 questions)

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Best of Luck!

All of the following are major joint motions except:

A. A. Expanding

B. B. Rolling

C. C. Spinning

D. D. Sliding

When overtraining occurs, which hormone is typically present in the bloodstream?

A. A. Epinephrine

B. B. Growth hormone

C. C. Cortisol

D. D. Norepinephrine

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

A. A. Larger in size

B. B. Decreased oxygen delivery

C. C. Short-term contractions

D. D. Slow to fatigue

During a biceps curl, the triceps brachii would be considered what type of mover?

A. A. Agonist

B. B. Synergist

C. C. Stabilizer

D. D. Antagonist

Which connective tissue is responsible for attaching muscle to bone?

A. A. Synergists

B. B. Ligaments

C. C. Stabilizers

D. D. Tendons

Which of the following is not a division of the vertebral (spinal) column?

A. A. Sacrum

B. B. Sternum

C. C. Coccyx

D. D. Thoracic

What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?

A. A. They are located within the spinal cord

B. B. They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement

C. C. They process information from the dendrite and send it along to the axon

D. D. They rely on sensory receptors to recognize environmental stimuli

Inside the myofibrils of muscle tissue, which two types of contractile myofilaments can be found?

A. A. Sarcoplasm and plasma

B. B. Actin and myosin

C. C. Tropomyosin and troponin

D. D. Agonist and synergist

Growth hormone is stimulated by all of the following except:

A. A. Catecholamines

B. B. Vigorous exercise

C. C. Testosterone

D. D. Deep sleep

10.

For an individual who is looking to improve their bone mass, which of the following exercises would be the best choice?

A. A. Bodyweight squats

B. B. Swimming

C. C. Elliptical intervals

D. D. Bicycling

11.

The scapulae are considered to be which type of bone?

A. A. Short bone

B. B. Irregular bone

C. C. Sesamoid bone

D. D. Flat bone

12.

All of the following are potential side effects of elevated cortisol levels except:

A. A. Increased body fat (specifically abdominal fat)

B. B. Decreased breathing rate

C. C. Breakdown of muscle tissue

D. D. Decreased fat utilization

13.

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates is known as a(n):

A. A. Neurotransmitter

B. B. Synapse

C. C. Motor unit

D. D. Action potential

14.

The sliding filament theory can be best described as:

A. A. The process of electrical impulses sliding from the CNS down the axon of the neuron, thus releasing neurotransmitters to initiate muscle contraction

B. B. The process of neural stimulation creating a muscle contraction

C. C. Troponin providing binding sites along the actin filament for both calcium and tropomyosin when a muscle needs to contract

D. D. How thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere move past one another, resulting in shortened muscle and force production

15.

Mechanoreceptors are located in all of the following except:

A. A. Skeletal muscle

B. B. Joint capsules

C. C. Pacinian corpuscles

D. D. Tendons

16.

When muscle contracts, what happens to the sarcomere?

A. A. It lengthens

B. B. It stays the same

C. C. It shortens

D. D. It awaits an electrical impulse from the CNS

17.

What is the unique feature of Type IIa muscle fibers?

A. A. They are capable of creating energy from both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism in nearly equal amounts

B. B. They can produce the most speed and strength

C. C. They contain the most mitochondria, myoglobin, and capillaries

D. D. They can provide the most stabilization force without fatiguing as quickly

18.

Motor neurons are also referred to as:

A. A. Interneurons

B. B. Efferent neurons

C. C. Afferent neurons

D. D. Sensory neurons

19.

During a stretch, which of the following is happening to sarcomeres within the muscle?

A. A. The sarcomeres lengthen

B. B. The sarcomeres contract

C. C. The sarcomeres shorten

D. D. The sarcomeres stay the same length

20.

The axial skeleton is comprised of bones in all of the following areas except:

A. A. Hand

B. B. Skull

C. C. Vertebral column

D. D. Rib cage

1 out of 20

Time is Up!

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Domain 4: Assessment

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 11: Health, Wellness, and Fitness Assessment
Chapter 12: Posture, Movement, and Performance Assessments

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Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 4: Assessment. (20 questions)

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Best of Luck!

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except:

A. A. Levator scapulae

B. B. Upper trapezius

C. C. Sternocleidomastoid

D. D. Deep cervical flexors

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate for an obese individual?

A. A. Rockport walk test

B. B. YMCA 3-minute step test

C. C. Single-leg squat assessment

D. D. 1-RM test

Which of the following is not a kinetic chain checkpoint term?

A. A. Core

B. B. Knee

C. C. Foot

D. D. Shoulders

What position does wearing shoes with a high heel put the ankle in?

A. A. A pronated position

B. B. A dorsiflexed position

C. C. A plantarflexed position

D. D. A supinated position

In what two ways should a fitness professional observe a client's posture and alignment patterns?

A. A. Statically and dynamically

B. B. Seated and standing

C. C. Supine and prone

D. D. Anteriorly and posteriorly

What muscles may be underactive if the low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

A. A. Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, vastus medialis oblique

B. B. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae

C. C. Medial gastrocnemius, gracilis, sartorius

D. D. Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers

What is the recommended body fat percentage range for a 34-year-old woman?

A. A. 23-38%

B. B. 25-38%

C. C. 20-35%

D. D. 12-28%

Which group represents possible injuries/conditions caused by upper crossed syndrome?

A. A. Headaches, biceps tendinitis, rotator cuff impingement

B. B. Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain

C. C. Plantar fasciitis, posterior tibialis tendonitis, patellar tendonitis

D. D. Headaches, posterior tibialis tendonitis, low back pain

Which of the following assessments is a suitable replacement for the single-leg squat assessment?

A. A. Overhead squat assessment

B. B. Inline lunge assessment

C. C. Stork balance test

D. D. Single-leg balance assessment

10.

What assessments are best used to test more advanced clients, such as athletes and those with strength-specific goals?

A. A. Bench Press, Squat, Shark Skill, Davies

B. B. Overhead Squat, Push-Up, Single-Leg Squat

C. C. Posture, Overhead Squat, Single-Leg Squat

D. D. Pushing, Pulling, Single-Leg Squat

11.

Which of the following is not a common site for a circumference measurement?

A. Calf

B. B. Forearm

C. C. Chest

D. D. Thigh

12.

When doing a waist circumference measurement, where does the measuring tape rest?

A. A. Directly above the bottom of the rib cage

B. B. Directly below the navel, in line with the top of the iliac crest

C. C. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the iliac crest

D. D. At the widest part of the waist, below the iliac crest

13.

In pronation distortion syndrome, all of the following are shortened muscles except:

A. A. Gastrocnemius

B. B. Anterior tibialis

C. C. Hip flexor complex

D. D. Adductors

14.

In upper crossed syndrome, which of the following altered joint mechanics is present?

A. A. Decreased cervical extension

B. B. Increased scapular protraction

C. C. Increased shoulder rotation

D. D. Increased shoulder extension

15.

All of the following are skinfold measurement sites used with the Durnin formula except:

A. A. Subscapular

B. B. Midaxillary

C. C. Biceps

D. D. Triceps

16.

Which movement compensation is indicated in an overhead squat assessment?

A. A. Scapular protraction

B. B. Knee adduction

C. C. Shoulder elevation

D. D. Cervical extension

17.

Which group represents injuries that are potentially caused by pronation distortion syndrome?

A. A. Headaches, biceps tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, thoracic outlet syndrome

B. B. Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain

C. C. Plantar fasciitis, hamstring complex strain, biceps tendonitis, thoracic outlet syndrome

D. D. Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain

18.

Which of the following is an accurate list of the kinetic chain checkpoints?

A. A. Foot and ankle, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Elbows, Head and cervical spine

B. B. Foot and ankle, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Shoulders, Head and cervical spine

C. C. Foot and ankle, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Shoulders, Wrists

D. D. Toes, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Shoulders, Head and cervical spine

19.

What is one reason why correct posture is an indicator of health?

A. A. Correct posture ensures that muscles are at their appropriate resting length

B. B. Correct posture improves the ability to reach

C. C. Correct posture adds length to the spine, increasing height

D. D. Correct posture encourages altered movement patterns

20.

What does systolic pressure indicate?

A. A. The pressure in the arterial system when the heart is contracting while filling with blood

B. B. The pressure in the arterial system after the heart contracts

C. C. The pressure in the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

D. D. The pressure in the arterial system before the heart contracts

1 out of 20

Time is Up!

Time's up

Domain 5: Exercise Technique and Training Instruction

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 13: Integrated Training and the OPT Model
Chapter 14: Flexibility Training Concepts
Chapter 15: Cardiorespiratory Training Concepts
Chapter 16: Core Training Concepts
Chapter 17: Balance Training Concepts
Chapter 18: Plyometric (Reactive) Training Concepts
Chapter 19: Speed, Agility, and Quickness Training Concepts
Chapter 20: Resistance Training Concepts

FREE NASM Practice Test 2023 – 240+ Practice Questions

Free NASM Practice Quizzes

Domain 1: Professional Development and Responsibility

Domain 2: Client Relations and Behavioral Coaching

Domain 3: Basic and Applied Sciences and Nutritional Concepts

Domain 4: Assessment

Domain 5: Exercise Technique and Training Instruction