FREE NASM Practice Tests 2023 - 240+ Practice Questions

Hello NASM learners, and welcome to PTPioneer’s NASM CPT Practice Exam and Domain Quiz page!

Throughout this page, you will be able to test yourself on the knowledge gained from NASM or see where you stand before you begin your studies.

In this article, we will be covering the following:

A Practice Test for Enhanced Learning

Practices Quizzes to Test Over Specific Domains

Next Steps PTPioneer NASM Study Hub

Now, let’s dive into some test preparation and see how NASM breaks up its Certification Exam for Personal Training!

Get your copy of the NASM CPT exam cheat sheet and our study plan. It helps immensely in studying for the exam.

Get The NASM CPT Cheat Sheet and Study Plan

Make sure to check out Trainer Academy for premium NASM CPT study materials. They will reduce study time by 50% and have an exam pass guarantee. Read my full review of them here. You can save $100 on their MVP study system with the code: PTPSUB

Check Out Trainer Academy

Let’s dive in and take some practice tests!

Contents

NASM CPT Study Series
Free NASM Practice Exam Part 1
Free NASM Practice Exam Part 2
Free NASM Domain Quizzes
NASM Certification Domain Breakdown
NASM CPT Exam Tips
Top Five Most Difficult NASM Test Questions
Top Five Most Difficult NASM CPT Exam Answers

NASM CPT Study Series

NASM Exam Prep Home Page
NASM Study Plan
NASM Study Guide
NASM Practice Exams
NASM Flashcards
NASM Cheat Sheet
NASM Exam FAQ

FREE NASM Practice Tests [year] - 240+ Practice Questions 1

Free NASM Practice Exam Part 1

Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Exam (part 1)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual NASM Exam with the same number of questions (120) and the same time allowed (120 minutes) as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (60) and time (60 minutes) for each part.

The NASM Exam breakdown into Six (6) Parts, in this part of NASM Practice Exam you will have 60 questions to complete in 60 minutes.

Here are the Six (6) Domains of NASM with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Professional development and responsibility [06 Questions] - 10%

2. Client relations and behavioral coaching [09 Questions] - 15%

3. Basic and applied sciences and nutritional concepts [09 Questions] - 15%

4. Assessment [09 Questions] - 16%

5. Exercise technique and training instruction [15 Questions] - 24%

6. Program design [12 Questions] - 20%

Please click NEXT to start your Free NASM PRACTICE EXAM right away.

Best of Luck!

How should a goal for new clients be calculated?

A. Calculate the closing percentage Determine how many more clients are needed to reach full-time status Estimate how many potential clients should be contacted every hour

B. Calculate how many sessions per year are required to reach a monetary goal Identify the closing percentage Reach out to 5 contacts every day until the goal is reached

C. Calculate how many sessions per week are required to reach a monetary goal, Calculate how many clients need to sign up to reach that number, Establish a timeline for contacting potential clients to reach that number

D. Calculate how many sessions per week are required to reach a monetary goal Reach out to 5 contacts every day until the goal is reached

Which of the following is considered a niche in the training business?

A. Women's fitness

B. Private gym

C. Independent contracting

D. Small group training

Which additional certification is an NASM-certified personal trainer required to have?

A. CPR

B. NCCA

C. First Aid

D. Undergraduate degree

Which of the following would be appropriate in approaching a potential client who is performing an exercise incorrectly?

A. Telling them you know the right way to perform the exercise

B. Recommending a better way of performing the exercise

C. Asking if you can make a suggestion

D. Telling them about a potential benefit of the exercise

A health and fitness professional can do all of the following except:

A. Provide post-rehabilitation services

B. Prescribe diets

C. Screen clients for exercise limitations

D. Act as a coach

If a personal trainer develops a niche service, which of the following marketing P's does that fall under?

A. Place

B. Promotion

D. Product

Which of the following best describes instrumental support?

A. Individuals or groups that remove tangible barriers to exercise, such as transportation

B. The support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern

C. The availability of family, friends, and coworkers to exercise with the client

D. The support that includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise

Does exercise affect depression and anxiety?

A. It improves anxiety, but not depression

C. It does not improve depression or anxiety

D. It improves both anxiety and depression

When you're making a SMART goal, how should the "S" be defined?

A. It should be specific enough that the trainer knows what it implies

B. It should be specific enough that the client can remember it

C. It should be specific enough that any trainer could understand it

D. It should be specific enough that anyone can understand it

10.

Which of the following are good examples of short-term goals?

A. Perform 100 push-ups every day for six months

B. Become a size 8 and fit into old clothes

C. This week, research three reasons to exercise to support motivation

D. Lose 20 pounds for high school reunion

11.

In SMART goals, how is "realistic" defined?

A. The trainer is sure the client can achieve the goal

B. The client is both willing and able to work toward the goal

C. This type of goal is completely new to the client

D. The goal is something the client is capable of doing

12.

In which stage of change is a client who has been training for six months and is now pursuing their fitness goals without the assistance of a trainer?

A. Preparation

B. Contemplation

C. Maintenance

D. Action

13.

How can an individual apply the M in the goal-setting acronym SMART?

A. By creating a timeline for the goal's completion

B. By not making the goal too challenging

C. By making the goal quantifiable

D. By making the goal something they are willing and able to work toward

14.

How can positive self-talk support client success?

A. It forces the client to embrace exercise

B. It improves the client's belief in their abilities

C. It allows the client to succeed

D. It has no effect on client success

15.

All of the following are barriers to establishing rapport except:

A. Not being an active listener

B. Being disinterested

C. Asking probing questions

D. Interrupting too often

16.

What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?

A. They are located within the spinal cord

B. They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement

C. They process information from the dendrite and send it along to the axon

D. They rely on sensory receptors to recognize environmental stimuli

17.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

A. Larger in size

B. Decreased oxygen delivery

C. Short-term contractions

D. Slow to fatigue

18.

During a biceps curl, the triceps brachii would be considered what type of mover?

A. Agonist

B. Synergist

C. Stabilizer

D. Antagonist

19.

Which connective tissue is responsible for attaching muscle to bone?

A. Synergists

B. Ligaments

C. Stabilizers

D. Tendons

20.

Which of the following is not a division of the vertebral (spinal) column?

A. Sacrum

B. Sternum

C. Coccyx

D. Thoracic

21.

The scapulae are considered to be which type of bone?

A. Short bone

B. Irregular bone

C. Sesamoid bone

D. Flat bone

22.

All of the following are major joint motions except:

A. Expanding

B. Rolling

C. Spinning

D. Sliding

23.

For an individual who is looking to improve their bone mass, which of the following exercises would be the best choice?

A. Bodyweight squats

B. Swimming

C. Elliptical intervals

D. Bicycling

24.

Growth hormone is stimulated by all of the following except:

A. Catecholamines

B. Vigorous exercise

C. Testosterone

D. Deep sleep

25.

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except:

A. Levator scapulae

B. Upper trapezius

C. Sternocleidomastoid

D. Deep cervical flexors

26.

What position does wearing shoes with a high heel put the ankle in?

A. A pronated position

B. A dorsiflexed position

C. A plantarflexed position

D. A supinated position

27.

In what two ways should a fitness professional observe a client's posture and alignment patterns?

A. Statically and dynamically

B. Seated and standing

C. Supine and prone

D. Anteriorly and posteriorly

28.

Which of the following is not a kinetic chain checkpoint term?

A. Core

B. Knee

C. Foot

D. Shoulders

29.

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate for an obese individual?

A. Rockport walk test

B. YMCA 3-minute step test

C. Single-leg squat assessment

D. 1-RM test

30.

What muscles may be underactive if the low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

A. Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, vastus medialis oblique

B. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae

C. Medial gastrocnemius, gracilis, sartorius

D. Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers

31.

Which group represents possible injuries/conditions caused by upper crossed syndrome?

A. Headaches, biceps tendinitis, rotator cuff impingement

B. Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain

C. Plantar fasciitis, posterior tibialis tendonitis, patellar tendonitis

D. Headaches, posterior tibialis tendonitis, low back pain

32.

What assessments are best used to test more advanced clients, such as athletes and those with strength-specific goals?

A. Bench Press, Squat, Shark Skill, Davies

B. Overhead Squat, Push-Up, Single-Leg Squat

C. Posture, Overhead Squat, Single-Leg Squat

D. Pushing, Pulling, Single-Leg Squat

33.

Which of the following is not a common site for a circumference measurement?

Calf

B. Forearm

C. Chest

D. Thigh

34.

All of the following muscles contract during abdominal bracing except:

A. Quadratus lumborum

B. External obliques

C. Scalenes

D. Rectus abdominis

35.

What should be the focus in core-strength exercises?

A. Drawing in and bracing during exercises

B. Improving neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability

C. Dynamic force generation at functional speed

D. Dynamic movements of the spine through the full range of motion

36.

The muscles of the core can be divided into three groups:

A. Universal Stabilization System, Native System, Development System

B. Central Abdominal System, Oblique System, Comprehensive System

C. Dynamic System, Mobility Stabilization System, Sectional System

D. Local Stabilization System, Global Stabilization System, Movement System

37.

Which of the following is a core-power exercise?

A. Cable rotation

B. Ball crunch

C. Bird dog

D. Medicine ball pullover throw

38.

Which of the following would be an appropriate progression from the single-leg floor bridge exercise?

A. Bridge with feet in a suspension trainer

B. Floor cobra

C. Floor bridge

D. Supine marching

39.

Which of the following is an example of a core-stabilization exercise?

A. Back extension

B. Cable rotation

C. Reverse crunch

D. Marching

40.

All of the following exercises can teach clients proper abdominal bracing techniques except:

A. Floor bridge

B. Valsalva maneuver

C. Low prone iso-abs

D. High prone iso-abs

41.

Which of the following is a common form mistake during a floor bridge?

A. Not keeping the chin tucked

B. Using momentum to rock the lower body up

C. Putting feet too close together

D. Raising hips too far off the floor

42.

All of the following are common form mistakes when performing the cable rotation exercise except:

A. Cervical spine not staying in line with the torso

B. Arching the low back

C. Not pivoting the trailing leg into triple extension

D. Allowing elbows to flex to bring the cable close to the body

43.

During the reverse crunch, which of the following is a common form mistake?

A. Swinging the legs

B. Arching the lower back

C. Keeping the back flat on the floor

D. Slowly lowering the hips

44.

Which of the following muscles contracts during the drawing-in maneuver?

A. Quadratus lumborum

B. Diaphragm

C. Internal obliques

D. Transverse abdominis

45.

Which of the following is a concern during the ball crunch exercise?

A. Tilting the chin up toward the ceiling

B. Tucking the chin down toward the chest

C. Bracing the feet on the floor

D. Allowing the back to extend over the ball

46.

All of the following are correct instructions for a front medicine ball oblique throw except:

A. Toss the ball against the wall or to a partner with an overhand motion

B. Use a scooping motion to catch the ball

C. Use a ball between 5% and 10% of body weight

D. Have knees slightly bent

47.

Which of the following is the most progressive core training exercise?

A. Cable rotation

B. Soccer throw

C. Front medicine ball oblique throw

D. Reverse crunch

48.

Which of the following is a common form mistake during the floor prone cobra?

A. Rotating the arms externally

B. Hyperextending the low back

C. Pinching the shoulder blades together

D. Pointing the thumbs up

49.

Which of the following reflects stabilization progression correctly?

A. Wobble board to foam pad

B. Balance disc to BOSU ball

C. Foam pad to sport beam

D. BOSU ball to balance disc

50.

What is another term for the preparatory period in a traditional periodization model?

A. Proprioception

B. Power

C. Neuromuscular adaptation

D. Anatomic adaptation

51.

How should the order of exercises be chosen for a client's workout program?

A. Exercises should be prioritized by stabilization, strength, and then power

B. Exercises should be prioritized according to the individual's needs and training objectives

C. Exercises should be prioritized by power, strength, and then stabilization

D. Exercises should be prioritized according to what the individual dislikes the most

52.

What is the repetition range in the stabilization endurance phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

A. 15-25 repetitions

B. 12-20 repetitions

C. 8-12 repetitions

D. 12-15 repetitions

53.

In which of the following phases of the Optimum Training Performance (OPT) model would a client benefit most from performing timed holds?

A. Phase 5

B. Phase 4

C. Phase 3

D. Phase 1

54.

When referring to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, all of the following phases make up the strength component except:

A. Strength endurance

B. Power

C. Hypertrophy

D. Maximal strength

55.

NASM has developed a template that provides health and fitness professionals with specific guidelines for creating an individualized program. All of the following components should be listed on a client's program except:

A. Resistance training

B. Client's height and weight

C. Core training

D. Client's goal

56.

To help a client safely progress through to hypertrophy training, which of the following phases of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should be completed first?

A. Strength endurance

B. Power

C. Dynamic strength

D. Maximal strength

57.

What might upper extremity exercise result in for an individual with lung disease?

A. Decreased muscular performance

B. Hypertrophied neck muscles

C. Muscle wasting

D. Onset of dyspnea earlier than usual

58.

All of the following are causes of restrictive lung disease except:

A. Asthma

B. Obesity

C. A neuromuscular disease

D. Fractured ribs

59.

What assessments are appropriate for a client with hypertension?

A. Assessments using estimated heart rate max (HRmax)

B. Assessments involving a Valsalva maneuver

C. Assessments using predicted maximal heart rate

D. Assessments using the talk test

60.

If a client exhibits dyspnea during exercise, which of the following should take place?

A. Immediately cease exercise and have them eat a simple carbohydrate snack

B. Immediately cease exercise and call 911

C. Have the client take longer rest breaks and train with reduced loads

D. Have the client lie down on the ground with their feet elevated

1 out of 60

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

Free NASM Practice Exam Part 2

Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Exam (part 2)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual NASM Exam with the same number of questions (120) and the same time allowed (120 minutes) as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (60) and time (60 minutes) for each part.

The NASM Exam breakdown into six (6) Parts, in this part of NASM Practice Exam you will have 60 questions to complete in 60 minutes.

Here are the Six (6) Domains of NASM with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Professional development and responsibility [06 Questions] - 10%

2. Client relations and behavioral coaching [09 Questions] - 15%

3. Basic and applied sciences and nutritional concepts [09 Questions] - 15%

4. Assessment [09 Questions] - 16%

5. Exercise technique and training instruction [15 Questions] - 24%

6. Program design [12 Questions] - 20%

Please click NEXT to start your Free NASM PRACTICE EXAM right away.

Best of Luck!

Can sexual harassment occur between two women?

A. Yes, sexual harassment can occur with people of the same sex, and women can be harassers

B. No, sexual harassment can occur with people of the same sex, but women cannot be harassers

C. No, sexual harassment cannot occur with people of the same sex, and women cannot be harassers

D. No, sexual harassment cannot occur with people of the same sex, although women can be harassers

Which of the following is an aspect of in-home personal training?

A. The trainer pays a fee to a health club in order to train clients

B. The trainer is paid an hourly wage with benefits

C. The trainer owns a facility and is responsible for facility ordinances

D. The trainer must travel and use portable equipment

When a potential client says yes to a personal training package, when should their first appointment be scheduled?

A. Within 2 weeks

B. Within 48 hours

C. Within 24 hours

D. Within 1 week

How should the trainer contact a potential client after asking them for their contact information?

A. Call the potential client 2 to 3 days later

B. Approach the client at their next gym appearance

C. Email the client a few days after meeting with them

D. Mail a handwritten card within 24 hours

In which situation does a personal trainer have a percentage of their session fees taken?

A. When working as an independent contractor for a commercial fitness club

B. When working as a full-time employee for a commercial fitness club

C. When owning a facility

D. When providing in-home personal training services

All of the following are examples of good customer service except:

A. Offering members a towel or some water

B. Giving advice to an individual who declined help

C. Making eye contact and smiling

D. Introducing yourself by name

What is the difference between process goals and product goals?

A. Process goals can be predictively achieved, and product goals may or may not be achieved

B. Process goals give the client something to work toward, and product goals are something to do in the moment

C. Process goals can always be achieved, and product goals are rarely achieved

D. Process goals are only achieved with careful assessment, and product goals are simple to achieve

How is parental support beneficial for clients?

A. Parents may try to make exercise unpleasant for their children

B. Parents lead by example, and their views on exercise are often passed down to their children

C. Parents can make their children exercise

D. Parents can tell their children to exercise, which will result in the children's consistency

Why should a personal trainer ask permission of a client before educating them?

A. Permission allows the trainer to fully speak their mind and share details of training

B. A trainer should never share information with anyone without permission

C. The client is paying for training and a thorough fitness training plan, not education

D. It improves the trainer-client relationship by reducing the imposing image of the trainer

10.

All of the following are examples of behavior strategies except:

A. Self-monitoring

B. Self-management

C. Goal setting

D. Positive self-talk

11.

What are SMART goals?

A. Set Modest Accessible Restricted Temperate

B. Sensible Measurable Appropriate Rational Thorough

C. Specific Measurable Attainable Realistic Timely

D. Significant Material Assessable Reachable Thoughtful

12.

What is the most important component of a fitness goal?

A. The trainer and client should agree that the goal is achievable

B. The client should create the goal based on their desire for a certain outcome

C. The trainer and client should agree that the goal is important

D. The trainer should create the goal based on what is beneficial for the client

13.

How can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

A. Continue educating them concerning the benefits of exercise

B. Discuss progress and suggest changes to the training plan

C. Discuss the best program for them

D. Clarify misconceptions about exercise

14.

When discussing SMART goals, how would the "attainable" component be described?

A. It means the goal is challenging but reasonably accessible

B. It means the goal is easy to attain

C. It means the client will definitely succeed

D. It means it is possible that the goal can be achieved

15.

In order to fulfill the R of the goal-setting SMART acronym, what does an individual need to do?

A. Make sure the goal can actually be achieved

B. Make the goal challenging, but not extreme

C. Establish a way the goal can be quantified

D. Decide on a specific date of completion

16.

When overtraining occurs, which hormone is typically present in the bloodstream?

A. Epinephrine

B. Growth hormone

C. Cortisol

D. Norepinephrine

17.

All of the following are potential side effects of elevated cortisol levels except:

A. Increased body fat (specifically abdominal fat)

B. Decreased breathing rate

C. Breakdown of muscle tissue

D. Decreased fat utilization

18.

Inside the myofibrils of muscle tissue, which two types of contractile myofilaments can be found?

A. Sarcoplasm and plasma

B. Actin and myosin

C. Tropomyosin and troponin

D. Agonist and synergist

19.

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates is known as a(n):

A. Neurotransmitter

B. Synapse

C. Motor unit

D. Action potential

20.

The sliding filament theory can be best described as:

A. The process of electrical impulses sliding from the CNS down the axon of the neuron, thus releasing neurotransmitters to initiate muscle contraction

B. The process of neural stimulation creating a muscle contraction

C. Troponin providing binding sites along the actin filament for both calcium and tropomyosin when a muscle needs to contract

D. How thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere move past one another, resulting in shortened muscle and force production

21.

When muscle contracts, what happens to the sarcomere?

A. It lengthens

B. It stays the same

C. It shortens

D. It awaits an electrical impulse from the CNS

22.

During a stretch, which of the following is happening to sarcomeres within the muscle?

A. The sarcomeres lengthen

B. The sarcomeres contract

C. The sarcomeres shorten

D. The sarcomeres stay the same length

23.

Mechanoreceptors are located in all of the following except:

A. Skeletal muscle

B. Joint capsules

C. Pacinian corpuscles

D. Tendons

24.

Motor neurons are also referred to as:

A. Interneurons

B. Efferent neurons

C. Afferent neurons

D. Sensory neurons

25.

When doing a waist circumference measurement, where does the measuring tape rest?

A. Directly above the bottom of the rib cage

B. Directly below the navel, in line with the top of the iliac crest

C. At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the iliac crest

D. At the widest part of the waist, below the iliac crest

26.

In pronation distortion syndrome, all of the following are shortened muscles except:

A. Gastrocnemius

B. Anterior tibialis

C. Hip flexor complex

D. Adductors

27.

In upper crossed syndrome, which of the following altered joint mechanics is present?

A. Decreased cervical extension

B. Increased scapular protraction

C. Increased shoulder rotation

D. Increased shoulder extension

28.

All of the following are skinfold measurement sites used with the Durnin formula except:

A. Subscapular

B. Midaxillary

C. Biceps

D. Triceps

29.

Which group represents injuries that are potentially caused by pronation distortion syndrome?

A. Headaches, biceps tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, thoracic outlet syndrome

B. Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain

C. Plantar fasciitis, hamstring complex strain, biceps tendonitis, thoracic outlet syndrome

D. Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain

30.

What is the recommended body fat percentage range for a 34-year-old woman?

A. 23-38%

B. 25-38%

C. 20-35%

D. 12-28%

31.

Which of the following assessments is a suitable replacement for the single-leg squat assessment?

A. Overhead squat assessment

B. Inline lunge assessment

C. Stork balance test

D. Single-leg balance assessment

32.

Which of the following is an accurate list of the kinetic chain checkpoints?

A. Foot and ankle, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Elbows, Head and cervical spine

B. Foot and ankle, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Shoulders, Head and cervical spine

C. Foot and ankle, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Shoulders, Wrists

D. Toes, Knee, Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, Shoulders, Head and cervical spine

33.

Which movement compensation is indicated in an overhead squat assessment?

A. Scapular protraction

B. Knee adduction

C. Shoulder elevation

D. Cervical extension

34.

What is the most common form mistake during the back extension exercise?

A. Hyperextending the low back

B. Bending the knees

C. Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades

D. Lying prone instead of supine

35.

In regard to working with the internal obliques, what is the main muscular role of the transverse abdominis?

A. To assist in trunk flexion

B. To facilitate contralateral rotation

C. To isometrically stabilize the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

D. To facilitate lateral flexion

36.

Which of the following balance exercises is a balance-stabilization exercise?

A. Single-leg throw and catch

B. Single-leg squat

C. Single-leg squat touchdown

D. Single-leg Romanian deadlift

37.

How does balance training develop neuromuscular efficiency?

A. By simulating stable and safe environments

B. By challenging the muscles of the local stabilization system

C. By challenging the muscles of the core to activate and protect the spine

D. By simulating unstable yet controllable environments

38.

Which training levels use total body exercises?

A. Stabilization level and power level

B. Stabilization level and strength level

C. Strength level and power level

D. Stabilization level, strength level, and power level

39.

Which of the following cues is important to remember during a single-leg Romanian deadlift?

A. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair

B. Retract the shoulder blades

C. Reach all the way to the floor

D. Avoid hunching over

40.

Which of the following is a balance-stabilization exercise?

A. Single-leg box hop-down

B. Lunge to balance

C. Single-leg squat

D. Single-leg hip rotation

41.

Which of the following is an example of a balance-strength exercise?

A. Multiplanar box jump

B. Multiplanar step-up to balance

C. Single-leg lift and chop

D. Multiplanar hop with stabilization

42.

Which of the following is a common form mistake during the single-leg lift and chop?

A. Lifting in a diagonal pattern instead of straight ahead

B. Having the feet too close together

C. The knee of the balance leg not tracking in line with the toes

D. Lifting the medicine ball up too high

43.

What is dynamic balance?

A. The ability to balance while walking in a straight line

B. The ability to change direction without falling while moving on unstable surfaces

C. The ability to stay in balance on an unstable surface

D. The ability to maintain stabilization during walking lunges

44.

What are two types of balance?

A. Static and dynamic

B. Postural and dynamic

C. Combination of static and dynamic

D. Static and active-isolated

45.

All of the following are balance-stabilization exercises except:

A. Single-leg throw and catch

B. Single-leg lift and chop

C. Single-leg squat

D. Single-leg hip rotation

46.

Balance is influenced by all of the following factors except:

A. Injury

B. Inactivity

C. Age

D. Weight

47.

All of the following are acute variables for balance-stabilization training except:

A. Intensity

B. Number of sets

C. Tempo

D. Rest frequency

48.

What makes "multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization" a balance-power exercise?

A. It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires full range of motion

B. It requires stabilization in the jump from a platform down to the floor

C. It requires dynamic control in the mid-range of the motion, with multiplanar movement

D. It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization

49.

An individual is considered obese if they have a BMI reading of:

A. 30 or above

B. 25 or above

C. 40 or above

50.

At what intensity should a pregnant woman exercise during aerobic exercise?

A. 50-60% of peak work capacity

B. 30-40% of peak work capacity

C. 60-70% of peak work capacity

D. 40-50% of peak work capacity

51.

How many sets and repetitions should an initial resistance training program prescribe for individuals with high blood pressure?

A. 4-5 sets of 12-20 repetitions

B. 2-3 sets of 15-20 repetitions

C. 1-2 sets of 8-12 repetitions

D. 1-3 sets of 10-20 repetitions

52.

How often should an overweight or obese person participate in cardiorespiratory exercise?

A. At least 5 days per week

B. 7 days per week

C. 1-3 days per week

D. 3-5 days per week

53.

For effective weight loss, how many calories should an obese client expend per session?

A. 200-300 calories per session

B. 400-500 calories per session

C. 300-400 calories per session

D. 100-200 calories per session

54.

All of the following exercises are appropriate for a pregnant client except:

A. Overhead squat

B. Ball cobra

C. Push-to-pull

D. Single-leg balance

55.

Which of the following blood pressure measurements is considered hypertensive?

A. 120/74

B. 138/86

C. 130/89

D. 146/80

56.

How long should an individual with coronary heart disease be asymptomatic before engaging in a resistance training program?

A. At least three months

B. At least one month

C. At least four months

D. At least six months

57.

For older adults, what is the recommended intensity for resistance training?

A. 40-80% of 1 RM

B. 30-65% of 1 RM

C. 20-75% of 1 RM

D. 20-45% of 1 RM

58.

All of the following movement assessments are recommended for youth training except:

A. Overhead squat assessment

B. Single-leg stance

C. One-repetition maximum strength assessment

D. Push-up assessment

59.

Which of the following is a consideration of training for youth?

A. VO2 peak is higher than in adults (body weight adjusted)

B. Sweat rate is consistently higher than in adults

C. Glycolytic enzymes are lower than in adults

D. Submaximal oxygen demand is lower than in adults

60.

All of the following are low-impact forms of cardiorespiratory exercise except:

A. Swimming

B. Water aerobics

C. Stair climbing

D. Cycling

1 out of 60

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

Free NASM Domain Quizzes

Domain 1: Professional Development and Responsibility

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 1: The Modern State of Health and Fitness
Chapter 2: The Personal Training Profession

Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 1: Professional development and responsibility. (20 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free NASM Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

Which of the following would be appropriate in approaching a potential client who is performing an exercise incorrectly?

A. Telling them you know the right way to perform the exercise

B. Recommending a better way of performing the exercise

C. Asking if you can make a suggestion

D. Telling them about a potential benefit of the exercise

Which of the following is considered a niche in the training business?

A. Women's fitness

B. Private gym

C. Independent contracting

D. Small group training

Which additional certification is an NASM-certified personal trainer required to have?

A. CPR

B. NCCA

C. First Aid

D. Undergraduate degree

If a personal trainer develops a niche service, which of the following marketing P's does that fall under?

A. Place

B. Promotion

D. Product

Can sexual harassment occur between two women?

A. Yes, sexual harassment can occur with people of the same sex, and women can be harassers

B. No, sexual harassment can occur with people of the same sex, but women cannot be harassers

C. No, sexual harassment cannot occur with people of the same sex, and women cannot be harassers

D. No, sexual harassment cannot occur with people of the same sex, although women can be harassers

When a potential client says yes to a personal training package, when should their first appointment be scheduled?

A. Within 2 weeks

B. Within 48 hours

C. Within 24 hours

D. Within 1 week

A health and fitness professional can do all of the following except:

A. Provide post-rehabilitation services

B. Prescribe diets

C. Screen clients for exercise limitations

D. Act as a coach

Which of the following is an aspect of in-home personal training?

A. The trainer pays a fee to a health club in order to train clients

B. The trainer is paid an hourly wage with benefits

C. The trainer owns a facility and is responsible for facility ordinances

D. The trainer must travel and use portable equipment

How should the trainer contact a potential client after asking them for their contact information?

A. Call the potential client 2 to 3 days later

B. Approach the client at their next gym appearance

C. Email the client a few days after meeting with them

D. Mail a handwritten card within 24 hours

10.

How should a goal for new clients be calculated?

A. Calculate the closing percentage Determine how many more clients are needed to reach full-time status Estimate how many potential clients should be contacted every hour

B. Calculate how many sessions per year are required to reach a monetary goal Identify the closing percentage Reach out to 5 contacts every day until the goal is reached

D. Calculate how many sessions per week are required to reach a monetary goal Reach out to 5 contacts every day until the goal is reached

11.

In which situation does a personal trainer have a percentage of their session fees taken?

A. When working as an independent contractor for a commercial fitness club

B. When working as a full-time employee for a commercial fitness club

C. When owning a facility

D. When providing in-home personal training services

12.

All of the following are examples of good customer service except:

A. Offering members a towel or some water

B. Giving advice to an individual who declined help

C. Making eye contact and smiling

D. Introducing yourself by name

13.

After the initial contact, what is the appropriate amount of time to wait before calling to follow up with a member?

A. 4 days

B. 2 days

C. 1 week

D. 24 hours

14.

What is an aspect of independent contractor work as a trainer?

A. There are no overhead costs, but the trainer must transport any and all equipment

B. The trainer may be paid more if they have multiple fitness certifications, years of service, and/or high client retention

C. The trainer can target and market to a specific population, building their own business model

D. The trainer does not work regularly, but on an as-needed basis

15.

Which of these is the initial reason for remaining within one's scope of practice?

A. To avoid injury and liability

B. To become a high-quality trainer

C. To ensure a long career

D. To protect the gym's reputation

16.

Why is uncompromising customer service an important aspect of being a trainer?

A. It provides an exceptionally valuable experience to the client

B. It is necessary for the personal trainer to be considered ethical

C. It is necessary to develop your reputation as a decent trainer

D. It shows that you are unwilling to compromise on your personal beliefs

17.

All of the following are key characteristics of an independent fitness professional except:

A. Need to maintain and transport equipment

B. Having little control over hours worked

C. No employment benefits such as 401k or subsidized health insurance

D. Ability to develop unique, custom, and creative programming

18.

Which of the following is an appropriate pricing strategy for training?

A. Slightly more than is comfortable for potential clients

B. On par with prices in a different area

C. Slightly more than competitors' prices

D. On par with competitors' prices

19.

The NASM scope of practice allows a certified personal trainer to do all of the following except:

A. Provide guidance that supports client goals

B. Design safe, effective exercise and conditioning programs

C. Make nutritional recommendations

D. Diagnose or treat areas of pain

20.

Which skills should new fitness professionals focus on developing?

A. People skills

B. Program design skills

C. Basic movement skills

D. Assessment skills

1 out of 20

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

Domain 2: Client Relations and Behavioral Coaching

This section of the NASM CPT Includes these Chapters:

Chapter 3: Psychology of Exercise
Chapter 4: Behavioral Coaching

Welcome to your NASM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 2: Client relations and behavioral coaching. (20 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free NASM Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

Which of the following best describes instrumental support?

A. Individuals or groups that remove tangible barriers to exercise, such as transportation

B. The support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern

C. The availability of family, friends, and coworkers to exercise with the client

D. The support that includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise

Does exercise affect depression and anxiety?

A. It improves anxiety, but not depression

B. It improves anxiety, but not depression