FREE CSCS Study Guide + CSCS Practice Exam + Flashcards for 2019

Q1:  With consistent aerobic training, what are the possible adaptations?
A1:   Rise in capillary density in muscle fibers

Q2:  What is affected by the size principle?
A2:  Motor neuron recruitment order

Q3:  On which plane of the anatomy does the human body perform a vertical jump?
A3:  Sagittal

Q4:  A glass of skim milk, a whole wheat tuna sandwich, and a green salad with a vinegar dressing are consumed. What is the source of omega-3 fatty acids in this meal?
A4:  Tuna

Q5:  Which electrical occurrences are undetectable during a normal electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A5:  Atrial repolarization

Q6: While skating, which of these hip movements depends on the gluteus maximus for a hockey athlete?
A6: External hip rotation

Q7:  What is the name given to the intensity or relative intensity of an exercise that promotes a build-up of resting concentrations of blood lactate levels?
A7:  Lactate threshold

Q8:  what is the daily recommended protein intake per kg of body mass for a rowing athlete?
A8:  1.4 to 1.7 g

Q9:  The series elastic component (SEC) reserves energy for plyometric action in what body structures?
A9: Tendons

Q10:  Which of these actions describes transverse plane abduction of the shoulder?
A10:  backhand tennis stroke

Q11:  Which of these, when changes occur in them, influence the muscle spindles?
A11:  Muscle length change

Q12:  Which of these substances is not banned by the NCAA?
A12:  Creatine

Q13:  What term describes the act in which red blood cell mass is increased artificially?
A13:  Blood doping

Q14:  A gradual decrease in which of these can lead to fatigue?
A14:  Phosphagens

Q15:  Which joint is stabilized by the following: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor?
A15:  Glenohumeral

Q16:  What does a nutritional supplement containing leucine stimulate?
A16:  It buffers muscle protein catabolism and stimulates protein synthesis

Q17:  While performing resistance training, which structure of the knee is most vulnerable to injury?
A17:  Patella (knee cap) and surrounding structures

Q18:  Which of these physiological variables is likely not to decrease due to aerobic training?
A18:  Levels of ATP stores

Q19:  Relative to the latissimus dorsi, where is the trapezius positioned?
A19:  Superior

Q20:  Which of these is an indicator of protein quality?
A20:  Protein digestibility corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS)

Q21:  Which joint action is occurring when an increase in the angle between the radius/ulna and humerus occurs, what joint action is responsible?
A21:  Extension

Q22:  The force-velocity curve is influenced by a rise in rate of force development in what way?
A22:  Shifts the curve to the right

Q23:  What knee motion immediately follows push-off during a running motion?
A23:  Flexion

Q24:  A 250 pound football linebacker, is recommended a weight loss plan by a nutritionist. What is the ideal daily protein intake recommendation for such a plan?
A24:  204 to 306 grams

Q25:  For an abdominal crunch, what is the name of the starting body position?
A25:  Supine

Q26:  An activity that involves active muscle engagement and a rebound-like motion where the end position is not maintained is known as what?
A26:  Ballistic stretch

Q27:  Which circumstances of chronic performance can result in overtraining?
A27:  High volume, high-frequency, minimal rest intervals

Q28:  Initial weight loss due to a low carb diet results from what?
A28:  decrease in water weight

Q29:  What effect does arginine have on the circulatory system?
A29:  Stimulates vasodilation

Q30:  Which of the quadriceps muscles is positioned closest to the center line of the body??
A30: Vastus medialis

Q1:  What term describes the methods prescribed to achieve maximal force in minimal time?
A1:  Plyometric movements

Q2:  A strength and conditioning professional’s acceptable duties’ legal guidelines are defined as:
A2:  Scope of practice

Q3:  What is the minimum suggested number of fans to ventilate a 400sqft strength and conditioning facility
A3:  8

Q4:  What is the term given when training intensity or duration decreases or training stops completely due to program intervals, disease or injury?
A4:  Detraining

Q5:  Low speed muscular strength is defined by which other term?
A5:  Maximum muscular strength

Q6: For medicine ball plyometric throws, what is the ideal stance for movements such as the two hand overhead, two hand side-to-side and chest pass throws?
A6: Parallel feet at the width of the shoulders

Q7:  Where should the handles be relative to the body with the pec deck machine?
A7:  Aligned with the middle of the chest

Q8:  As compared to training on a level surface, what is the percentage of total power achievable by training on an uneven surface?
A8:  Up to 70%

Q9:  When administering jump tests for vertical, reactive and standard long jump, what is the allowable number of trials?
A9: 3

Q10:  Which values are affected by repetition volume?
A10:  Intensity

Q11:  Melissa is preparing to execute a one-arm DB snatch with the right arm. this is her positioning:  foot placement a bit wider than hips,  dumbbell placed in between foot position,  Shoulders are higher than hips Neutral spine,  eyeline is straightforward,  The dumbbell is marginally behind her right shoulder,  Is this initial stance ideal? Otherwise, what changes should be made? 
A11:  This is the appropriate position

Q12:  What adaptation will be achieved by an athlete performing at 70-85%  of their 1RM for 8-12 reps
A12:  Muscle hypertrophy

Q13:  Which of these options would support training focus for a training block with a significance on optimizing acceleration?
A13:  Incline sprinting

Q14:  For maximum muscle growth and an allowance to train daily, what would be the suggested training method?
A14:  Split workouts

Q15:  Relative to the hips, what is the preferred shoulder position during the max velocity phase of a sprint?
A15:  Directly above the hips

Q16:  For every inch of elevation, how many inches of horizontal surfacing must be provided for a wheelchair ramp in a strength and conditioning facility?
A16:  12″

Q17:  For administration of an aerobic endurance test in hot conditions, which of these is an important guideline?
A17:  Make a reasonable determination of temperature, wind and humidity

Q18:  Name the PNF method that starts with the same initial phase as the hold-relax, but the second phase is a contraction of the antagonist muscle through a complete range of motion against partner applied resistance?
A18:  Contract-relax technique

Q19:  What is the first necessary step before a release or waiver form is signed by an athlete?
A19:  Informed consent

Q20:  Which of these sorts of plyometric drills is of the highest intensity?
A20:  Depth jumps

Q21:  When the cable handle is pulled to the chest, which muscles are involved?
A21:  Latissimus dorsi, teres major, middle trapezius, rhomboids, and posterior deltoids

Q22:  During a fast-foot speed drill, how high should the swinging leg swing?
A22:  Mid-shin height

Q23:  The measurement of human body attributes such as weight, height and girth are known as what scientific study?
A23:  Anthropometry

Q24:  The dip occurs at what phase of the push-jerk?
A24:  Setup phase

Q25:  A 16-year-old athlete has been training for two years with a strength and conditioning coach. he is considering use of creatine and asks the coach which brand he should use. how should the coach respond?
A25:  Recommend the athlete consults a qualified nutrition and diet expert

Q26:  Whats are the common goals of a resistance program during the prep period?
A26:  To optimize size, endurance and strength of muscles

Q27:  What is the ideal spacing between cones for the set up of the 300-yard shuttle when testing for anaerobic capacity?
A27:  25 yards

Q28:  Male decathletes have what average body fat %
A28:  8-10%

Q29:  The stretch involving pulling an arm over the chest with the other targets which muscles?
A29:  rear deltoid, mid trapezius and rhomboids

Q30:  Which of these describes a group of sequenced reps executed before rest?
A30: Set
 
Q31:  In order to manage aerobic intensity, which of these is not an ideal method?
A31:  Blood pressure

Q32:  With the initial pull of the power snatch, which of these is true?
A32:  Maintenance of torso angle as bar passes from the shins to the knees

Q33:  How does race-intensity training contrast to pace/tempo training?
A33:  Same or marginally lower intensity

Q34:  Which of these is not advisable as a landing position during performance of lower body plyometrics?
A34:  The torso should be upright on landing when viewed from the side

Q35:  A supinated grip would be ideal for which exercise?
A35:  Chin-up

Q36:  Which grip forms should be used by the lifter and spotter during the downward phase of a barbell tricep lift?
A36:  Lifter: pronated grip; Spotter: supinated grip

Q37:  Which of these training types is can be described by a superset involving a back squat followed by cycled split squat jumps
A37:  Complex training

Q38:  “The following are the results of a 20 year old, division 1 college level basketball player. based on this data, which area of performance needs more work?  1RM power clean: 200 lbs,  1RM back squat: 300 lbs,  1RM bench press: 240 lbs”
A38:  Maximal power

Q39:  For female athletes, which of these requires additional consideration when creating an exercise program as opposed to men?
A39:  Prevention of ACL injury

Q40:  Which of these suggestions is relevant for a sophomore college football athlete with a 315 lbs 1RM bench press who wants to put on some mass?
A40: Bench press 4 x 10 with 240 lbs; Back squat 4 x 10 with 320 lbs