FREE ACE Practice Tests 2023 - 300+ Practice Questions

Hello and welcome to the American Council on Exercise (ACE) Personal Trainer certification exam practice test questions.

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FREE ACE Practice Tests [year] - 300+ Practice Questions 1

As you can see below, the ACE certification practice exam is separated into two parts.

Think you know your ACE CPT material?

Let’s see how many correct answers you got with PTPioneer’s free ace personal trainer practice exam!

Free ACE Practice Exam Part 1

Welcome to your ACE Practice Exam (part 1)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual ACE Exam with the same number of questions (150) and the same time allowed (180 minutes) as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (75) and time (90 minutes) for each part.

The ACE breakdown into four (4) Parts, in this part of ACE Practice Exam you will have 75 questions to complete in 90 minutes.

Here are the Four (4) Domains of ACE with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Interviews and assessments [18 Questions] - 23%

2. Program design and implementation [23 Questions] - 31%

3. Program modification and progression [19 Questions] - 26%

4. Professional conduct, safety and risk management[15 Questions] - 20%

Please click NEXT to start your Free ACE PRACTICE EXAM right away.

Best of Luck!

Kelsey is in for her second session and you are conducting the fitness assessments. When you are checking body fat percentage you ask her what types of exercise she likes to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kelsey?

A) Planning Stage

B) Action Stage

C) Investigation Stage

D) Rapport Stage

What is the correct strategy to deal with pain or any underlying pathologies if a client mentions lower back pain from certain movement??

A) Screen for pronation or supination

B) Strengthen the rectus abdominus to correct the length-tension relationship

C) Improve mobility through the ankle and hips

D) Refer out to a qualified healthcare professional

Which muscles are suspected to be tight when a posterior pelvic tilt is determined?

A) Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius

B) Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

C) Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

D) Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

During an aerobic capacity assessment, when are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?

A) After reaching the second ventilatory threshold

B) After reaching the first ventilatory threshold

C) In the last two minutes of the test

D) Throughout the entire test

What are the proper units of measurement we use to calculate BMI?

A) Height (in)/Weight (lb.

B) Weight (kg)/Height (m)

C) Height (m)/Weight (kg)

D) Weight (lb./Height (in)

Which of these tests evaluates cardio fitness?

A) Rockport Fitness Walking Test

B) Bench Press Test

C) Leg Press Test

D) Bodyweight Squat Test

What method of body fat measurement is inaccurate when used on obese clients?

A) Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis

B) Total Body Electrical Conductivity

C) Skinfold Measurement

D) Hydrostatic Weighing

Miranda has been up 15 minutes late to her session. The trainer ends the sessions on time rather than extending it the 15 minutes Susie was late. Which principal of behavioral change will allow Miranda to view the consequence of being tardy and correct this behavior in the future?

A) Operant conditioning

B) Observational learning

C) Cognitions of behavior

D) Shaping

What is a commonly palpated site when checking a client’s heart rate?

A) Jugular vein

B) Tibial artery

C) Radial artery

D) Femoral artery

10.

All of these are characteristic of rapport, besides:

A) Demonstrating warmth and genuineness

B) Short duration

C) Exhibiting empathy

D) Creating impressions of professionalism

11.

Why would the prime mover of the gluteals become dormant during hip extension and allow the hamstrings to become the prime mover?

A) Reciprocal inhibition

B) Hypertonicity

C) Synergistic dominance

D) Co-contraction

12.

A client is able to rotate 30 degrees during a thoracic spine mobility screen. Which area could be directly affected?

A) Lumbar spine

B) Subtalar joint

C) Iliotibial band

D) Occipital joint

13.

Which of these symptoms should have the test terminated during any test that involves muscular endurance?

A) Cyanosis

B) Wheezing

C) Angina

D) All answers are correct

14.

How often should heart rate be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A) Every minute

B) Every 3 minutes

C) Every 30 seconds

D) Continuously

15.

In what location should we measure the arm?

A) Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed.

B) Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process when the bicep flexed.

C) Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process when the arm is relaxed.

D) Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed.

16.

Before you add weighted loads into client exercises, you need to make sure your client is proficient in which of these movement patterns?

A) Core stabilization

B) Plyometric jumps

C) Dynamic warm ups

D) 1RM

17.

Which of these is not correctable through exercise?

A) Scoliosis

B) Forward head position

C) Pelvic tilting

D) Scapular protraction

18.

In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would your client begin to consider the implications of inactivity while remaining sedentary?

A) Contemplation

B) Precontemplation

C) Action

D) Preparation

19.

You are in the program design stage of strength development with your athlete client and you ask her to identify the different movement patterns, speeds, and muscles involved in her sport in order to properly conduct a needs assessment. To which option, in the needs assessment, would this information be applicable?

A) Movement analysis

B) Injury analysis

C) Current conditioning level

D) Physiological analysis

20.

Which phase would most benefit a client in completing his goal if they have expressed interest in an aesthetic goal and have developed postural stability and movement patterns ideally?

A) Movement Training

B) Performance Training

C) Load Training

D) Stability and Mobility Training

21.

As a client lowers the weights and lengthens his arms during a bicep curl, which type of contraction is the bicep experiencing?

A) Progressive contraction

B) Eccentric contraction

C) Isometric contraction

D) Concentric contraction

22.

Which of these has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise intensity?

A) Anaerobic threshold

B) First ventilator threshold

C) Talk test threshold

D) Aerobic threshold

23.

Which factor has the most influence over flexibility?

A) Muscle

B) Skin

C) Joint capsule

D) Tendons

24.

What would be the ideal hard-to-easy ratio to begin aerobic-efficiency training?

A) 1:3

B) 1:1

C) 1:4

D) 1:2

25.

What is the minimum amount of time aerobic exercise should take?

A) 20 minutes

B) 45minutes

C) 30 minutes

D) 10 minutes

26.

Which stage will allow your client to develop peak power through intervals at an RPE of 9 or above?

A) Aerobic-efficiency Training

B) Anaerobic-endurance Training

C) Aerobic-base Training

D) Anaerobic-power Training

27.

Which of these is the best course of action to continue to increase lower body strength significantly?

A) Increase the number of squats to 20 reps per set.

B) Add resistance to her squats and lunges.

C) Discontinue the squats and lunges until she finds them difficult again.

D) Continue with the program as it is.

28.

Which one is a concentric contraction?

A) Triceps in a bicep curl

B) Hamstrings in a leg curl

C) Erector spinae in the upward portion of an abdominal crunch

D) Hamstrings in a leg extension

29.

Which one of these is an example of Stability and Mobility training?

A) Leg extension

B) Depth jumps

C) Bend and lift movements

D) Isolated isometric contractions

30.

Which of these is most accurate in terms of resistance training and muscle hypertrophy?

A) Resistance training should be periodized for muscle growth.

B) Single set training produces superior hypertrophic results.

C) Rest intervals should be 2 to 3 minutes.

D) Use of a repetition range of 12 or more.

31.

Which of these is not a sensory system that provides essential information to the central nervous system to maintain balance?

A) Vestibular

B) Somatosensory

C) Cognition

D) Visual

32.

Which of these statements defines what has happened to your client if they can comfortably talk after 15 minutes of cardio?

A) Your client has reached her lactate threshold.

B) Your client has reached her maximum oxygen uptake level.

C) Your client has reached her ventilator threshold.

D) Your client has reached her steady state level.

33.

Which method cannot be used to program and monitor exercise intensity?

A) Stroke volume

B) METs

C) Talk test/VT1

D) RPE

34.

Which training parameter involves the stretch-shortening cycle?

A) Balance

B) Reactivity

C) Speed

D) Power

35.

What is the target heart rate range be for a client with hypertension?

A) 40-65%

B) 65-85%

C) 55%-75%

D) 50-70%

36.

Which core layer consists of muscles and fasciae that encircle the lower regions of the spine?

A) The outermost layer

B) The middle layer

C) The sagittal layer

D) The deep or most inner layer

37.

Lowered training volume is typical for what client?

A) Competitive marathon runner

B) Competitive soccer player

C) Competitive powerlifter

D) Competitive bodybuilder

38.

Which of these is not a benefit of resistance training?

A) Increased tensile strength in tendons

B) Increased bone mineral density

C) Higher cardiac output

D) Increased muscle fiber size and contractile strength

39.

How many times should you suggest a client perform resistance training per week if they have not participated in exercise for two years and want to gain strength and reduce body fat?

A) 2-3

B) 3-5

C) Once a week

D) 3-4

40.

Which of these components represent the last stage of stability and mobility training?

A) Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine

B) Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint

C) Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine

D) Static balance

41.

What is phase 1 of the functional movement & resistance training component in the ACE IFT model?

A) Load Training

B) Performance Training

C) Movement Training

D) Stability and Mobility Training

42.

A client is walking on a treadmill at 4.0 mph, and on a grade of 5%. Fifteen minutes into the workout, you are asking her questions about how she feels. Your client only answers with 3-4 words comfortably. What training zone are they likely in?

A) Training zone 3

B) Training zone 2

C) Between zone 1 and 2

D) Training zone 1

43.

A client who is recovering from a stroke. They have clearance from her physician and recommendations to use a recumbent bike and to work on balance exercises. How long should her activities last?

A) 30 minutes with rest periods

B) 10-15 minutes with no rest

C) 3 - 5 minutes with rest periods

D) 20 minutes with no rest

44.

Your client has properly performed a bilateral chest press from a seated position without making contact with a backrest after 4 weeks of training. What is the next progression of this movement?

A) A seated single-arm press

B) A standing press with a split-stance

C) A single-arm press with an ipsilateral stance

D) A single-arm press with a contralateral stance

45.

Which stage of the ACE IFT model emphasizes seat and standing stabilization over a fixed base of support?

A) Stage 3

B) Stage 2

C) The later portion of stage 2 and all of stage 3

D) Stage 1

46.

What stance is the most challenging in the final stage of progression of static-balance training?

A) Staggered Stance

B) Hip-width stance

C) Split-stance

D) Single-leg stance

47.

Which of these is a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training?

A) Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge

B) Wood chop to Pelvic tilts

C) Lunges to Wall sits

D) Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements

48.

Which statement is false regarding muscular growth and strength?

A) A person’s gender does not affect muscle quality.

B) Muscle length relative to bone length can determine muscle size.

C) Limb length influences muscle hypertrophy.

D) Tendon inserts on the bone and does not affect muscle hypertrophy.

49.

“I will not miss any scheduled sessions in October.” What is wrong with this goal?

A) It is not relevant.

B) It is not time-bound.

C) It is negative.

D) It is unattainable.

50.

At what point should you progress a client to phase two of cardiorespiratory training?

A) If the client is a fitness enthusiast looking for a challenge

B) When the client reports an RPE of 10 in phase 1

C) When the client can sustain phase 1 for 20-30 minutes

D) If the client has event-specific goals

51.

Which of these energy systems is predominant during high intensity agility drills for 15-30 seconds at an intensity level of 70%?

A) Both b and c

B) Glycolytic system

C) ATP system

D) Phosphagen system

52.

What factor of the health belief model would your client be in if they are scared of developing type 2 diabetes?

A) Perceived susceptibility

B) Perceived seriousness

C) Unaware

D) Cues to action

53.

Which of these exercise programs would an aspiring bodybuilder most likely not incorporate?

A) Circuit training

B) Compound sets

C) Assisted training

D) Supersets

54.

What would be a goal of exercising in the treatment of cancer?

A) Prevent musculoskeletal deterioration

B) Reduce symptoms such as nausea and fatigue

C) Improve cardiovascular conditioning

D) All answers are correct.

55.

How many days per week should a client do cardio in phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training?

A) 4-5 days

B) 2-4 days

C) 5-6 days

D) 1-2 days

56.

How long should an agility drill take for someone starting out?

A) 15-30 seconds

B) 10-60 seconds

C) 60 seconds to 2 minutes

D) Less than 10 seconds

57.

What is an example of overtraining syndrome?

A) Decreased blood pressure

B) Decreased resting heart rate

C) Increased resting heart rate

D) Increased hunger

58.

Using the SAID principle, what would be implied to meet your client’s goals if they want to run a half-marathon?

A) Goals should include muscular hypertrophy.

B) The program should involve at least 3 days of speed work.

C) The program should progress to mimic the demands of the activity.

D) There should be different intensities that stress both the aerobic and anaerobic systems.

59.

What rest interval is most appropriate for a client looking to build muscular endurance?

A) 2 to 5 minutes

B) Less than 30 seconds

C) 90 to 120 seconds

D) 30 to 90 seconds

60.

How many sessions per week do you advise someone to meet with you for full-body resistance training if they are 70 years old and have been inactive for 10 years?

A) 3 days per week

B) 2 days per week

C) None of the above. Bob should not be performing resistance exercises.

D) 1 day per week

61.

Which of these is considered within your scope of practice if a client wishes to lose 10 lbs.?

A) Explain some of the best diets on the market

B) All of the these

C) Show the client how to read nutrition labels

D) Outline a dietary weight loss program

62.

Which type of form will you use to demonstrate that the client was made aware of the normal outcomes of the activity and their wiliness to assume the risks of participating in a TRX class?

A) Specialty class waiver

B) Agreement to participate

C) Freedom of consent

D) Informed consent

63.

Which of these is an acceptable action as an ACE certified personal trainer if you client has confided to you that they had a rough breakup?

A) Recommend talking to your personal counselor for advise on dealing with stress.

B) Take the client out for lunch to console him.

C) Listen to the client with empathy and maintain his confidentiality.

D) Help the client understand and implement a new diet to reduce stress.

64.

From the perspective of the trainer what would be an advantage of the direct-employee model?

A) Employers pay for all equipment and the rest of the expenses of the facility.

B) Per-session fees are often lower than normal

C) Employers may need a minimum number of hours of work for the trainer

D) Trainer need to conform to the grooming standards of employee.

65.

Which is not a risk factor for coronary artery disease?

A) High cholesterol

B) Diabetes

C) Chondromalacia

D) Hypertension

66.

Your client has hypoglycemia. When is the best time to schedule his exercise?

A) He should exercise in the morning before a meal.

B) He should exercise in the evening before a meal.

C) He should never exercise.

D) He should exercise in the morning after a meal.

67.

What are the warning signs that your client may be having a stroke?

A) The client has a headache.

B) The client’s speech is slurred.

C) The client’s one side feels weak and numb.

D) All answers are correct.

68.

What type of condition does your client likely have if their kneecap swells and they have pain at the front and inner side of the knee?

A) ACL sprain

B) Chondromalacia

C) MVL sprain

D) Torn lateral meniscus

69.

What step of the risk-management protocol are you performing if you are performing the risk-management protocol and are specifying the risks that may be encountered in the areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure?

A) Selection of an approach for managing each risk

B) Implementation

C) Risk evaluation

D) Risk identification

70.

What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke?

A) Have your client lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids.

B) Give your client plenty of fluids and wait to continue exercise until she feels better.

C) Discontinue exercise and send your client home.

D) Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise.

71.

Which of these scenarios would be considered negligence?

A) You don't allow a client to exercise without clearance from a physician because they are undergoing radiation for cancer and they are anemic.

B) You monitor a client's exercise intensity with the Karvonen method. They take beta blockers and are hypertensive.

C) A client who is is currently recovering from hip replacement is now cleared for exercising. You focus your training on hip/leg abduction, strengthening, and lateral movements

D) You recommend to a diabetic client that you will monitor their blood glucose levels prior to and after exercising.

72.

Which of these is associated with an independent contractor versus and employee?

A) Oversees fitness center procedures.

B) Receives payment specific to job duties performed.

C) Receives health benefits from the fitness center.

D) Receives training from the fitness center.

73.

Your client just finished a one-minute plank. When they stand, they feels lightheadedness and nausea. In this situation, the trainer should:

A) avoid hydration to not cause vomiting

B) move to a less intense exercise.

C) sit or lie down.

D) stay in a standing position to encourage blood flow

74.

What should be done by the trainer if something unsafe is noticed in the facility?

A) Notify the management and avoid the area

B) Fix the equipment

C) Exercise caution in using the equipment

D) Notify management and utilize the equipment as well as possible

75.

Which of these is a component of a business plan?

A) Marketing plan

B) Risk analysis

C) Executive summary

D) All answers are correct

1 out of 75

Time is Up!

Time's up

Time is Up!

Free ACE Practice Exam Part 2

Welcome to your ACE Practice Exam (part 2)

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual ACE Exam with the same number of questions (150) and the same time allowed (180 minutes) as the actual exam.

NOTE: This Practice Exam has two parts with equally divided questions (75) and time (90 minutes) for each part.

The ACE breakdown into four (4) Parts, in this part of ACE Practice Exam you will have 75 questions to complete in 90 minutes.

Here are the Four (4) Domains of ACE with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Interviews and assessments [18 Questions] - 23%

2. Program design and implementation [23 Questions] - 31%

3. Program modification and progression [19 Questions] - 26%

4. Professional conduct, safety and risk management[15 Questions] - 20%

Please click NEXT to start your Free ACE PRACTICE EXAM right away.

Best of Luck!

The resting heart rate of a client should always be checked ____________________.

A) When the client is lying down

B) When the client is sitting

C) Before the client gets out of bed in the morning

D) Before breakfast

What is a correctable postural deviation?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis

B) Side dominance

C) Tibial torsion

D) Congenital conditions

Which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise when an anterior pelvic tilt is determined?

A) Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius

B) Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

C) Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

D) Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

What would allow for a lower resting heart rate due to increased blood pumped from the heart?

A) Stroke volume

B) Korotkoff sounds

C) Cerebrovascular accident

D) Hypotension

You observed that your client shows a muscle imbalance commonly associated with lordosis posture. Which muscle is possibly shortened?

A) Neck flexors

B) Scapular stabilizers

C) Lumbar extensors

D) Hip extensors

What is the total number of calories you would consume if you ate all of the servings of this snack? 310 cals per serving, and two servings per pack.

A) 310

B) 830

C) 620

D) 155

If your client is complaining of pain in the anterior part of the lower leg, what is the best course of action to continue the exercise program?

A) Tell your client they have shin splints and need to stretch and ice them when they gets home.

B) Cancel their sessions until the pain goes away.

C) Modify the program with cross training.

D) Continue as planned.

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship will the trainer first establish trust by listening to a new clients questions and concerns regarding her anxiety of working out in a new environment?

A) Action Stage

B) Rapport Stage

C) Contemplation Stage

D) Investigation Stage

What are the three sites that are suggested for skinfold measurements with men?

A) Biceps, thigh and suprailium

B) Triceps, thigh and suprailium

C) Triceps, chest and thigh

D) Chest, thigh and abdominal

10.

The purpose of pre-participation screening is:

A) Identifying individuals who need no supervision and have no medical conditions.

B) An acknowledgement by the client giving informed consent.

C) A minimal health-risk appraisal.

D) Detection of at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation.

11.

Each of these questions are likely to appear on the Par-Q questionnaire with the exception of which one?

A) Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs?

B) Do you have any joint pain?

C) Have you experienced chest pain?

D) Can you exercise during your work day?

12.

Which is not a step within the planning stage?

A) Formulating a plan

B) Generating and discussing alternatives

C) Setting goals

D) Observing an exercise

13.

What is the typical standard deviation of an individual’s maximum heart rate?

A) +/- 15 bpm

B) +/- 18 bpm

C) +/- 12 bpm

D) +/- 10 bpm

14.

Which of these medications decreases blood pressure?

A) Diuretics

B) Antihistamines

C) Ibuprofen

D) Decongestants

15.

What answer is not a risk factor for ITBS?

A) Knee valgus

B) Knee Varus

C) Leg-length discrepancy

D) Pes planus

16.

A client tells you a specific goal is that she wishes to lose 10 lbs. within two months. What stage of the client-trainer relationship would this SMART goal be developed?

A) Investigation stage

B) Action stage

C) Planning stage

D) Rapport stage

17.

Which of these women has a waist to hip ratio that puts her at risk for obesity-related disease?

A) Emily with a ratio of 0.60

B) Both Jeanie and April

C) April with a ratio of .87

D) Jeanie with a ratio of 0.81

18.

In what stage of the client to trainer relationship should the trainer learn the likes and dislikes of the client?

A) Action Stage

B) Investigation Stage

C) Maintenance Stage

D) Planning Stage

19.

Which of these describes the muscles involved in respiration incorrectly?

A) The sternocleidomastoid pulls the rib cage upward during active inspiration.

B) The rectus abdominis pulls the rib cage downward during active expiration.

C) The quadratus lumborum pulls the rib cage upward during active expiration.

D) The diaphragm is used during passive inspiration.

20.

Which rest interval is most accurate for muscular hypertrophy?

A) 2 - 5 minutes

B) 30 - 90 seconds

C) 5 minutes or over

D) 30 seconds or less

21.

Which cardiorespiratory training zone is shown with by moderate to vigorous intensity exercise?

A) Zone 3

B) Zone 2

C) Zone 4

D) Zone 1

22.

What are the two principal training components in the ACE IFT Model?

A) Functional/resistance training and cardiorespiratory training

B) Cardiorespiratory training and flexibility training

C) Functional/resistance training and flexibility training

D) Agility training and functional/resistance training

23.

Which of these can be the cause of muscle imbalance?

A) Poor exercise technique

B) One side dominance

C) Structural issues

D) All answers are correct

24.

Which phase of cardio training challenges the phosphagen system and is almost always only entered into for clients with sport specific training goals?

A) Aerobic-base Training

B) Aerobic-efficiency Training

C) Anaerobic-endurance Training

D) Anaerobic-power Training

25.

What percent of his 1 repetition maximum should a person be training at to increase muscular strength?

A) 50-60% of 1RM

B) 80-90% of 1RM

C) 90-100% of 1RM

D) 60-75% of 1RM

26.

Which of these type of exercise will be implemented when designing a program that is focused on improving the production of muscular force and power?

A) Plyometric exercises

B) Agility exercises

C) Endurance exercises

D) Speed exercises

27.

Which of these is an example of adaptations that occur when the body exercises regularly?

A) An Increase in blood volume

B) Blood pressure is improved

C) An enlarged heart

D) All answers are correct

28.

Above which of these levels is someone exercising using the talk test?

A) 9 rating of Perceived Exertion

B) First Ventilatory Threshold

C) Second Ventilatory Threshold

D) Lactate Threshold

29.

What stretching techniques should be utilized before a workout based on someone training for 3 years in martial arts with good stability and mobility all around?

A) Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches

B) None of the above.

C) Dynamic and ballistic stretches

D) Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches

30.

Which muscle is the agonist in a leg curl?

A) Hamstrings

B) Gluteus Maximus

C) Quadriceps

D) Soleus

31.

The best training intensity when resistance training for muscular endurance is?

A) 60-70% of 1RM

B) 50-60% of 1RM

C) 90-100% of 1RM

D) 70-80% of 1RM

32.

Which of these training modes involves an unstructured varying of intensities throughout a workout?

A) Interval training

B) Agility training

C) Cardiorespiratory training

D) Fartlek training

33.

What is the training volume of bicep curls if someone does 3 sets of 10 curls with a 50 pound barbell?

A) 500 lbs.

B) 50 lbs.

C) 1500 lbs.

D) 150 lbs.

34.

How many days per week should a boy that is 13 years old perform resistance training?

A) 3-4 days/wk.

B) 5-6 days/wk.

C) 2-3 days/wk.

D) 1-2 days/wk.

35.

Which of these two muscle groups is responsible for pulling upward on the pelvis?

A) Hip flexors and erector spinae

B) Rectus abdominis and erector spinae

C) Hamstrings and erector spinae

D) Rectus abdominis and hamstrings

36.

What percent of strength loss has occurred since the age of 30 for a 60 year old client?

A) 40%

B) 30%

C) 50%

D) 20%

37.

In addition to proper mobility of the thoracic spine, what is a key factor to promote stability in the scapulothoracic region?

A) Thoracic stability

B) Impingement against the coracoacromial arch during deltoid action

C) Mobility of the lumbar spine

D) Muscle balance within the parascapular muscles

38.

Which muscle is the antagonist in a leg curl?

A) Soleus

B) Gluteus Maximus

C) Hamstrings

D) Quadriceps

39.

Which of these is an example of someone alternating pushing and pulling exercises in a session?

A)three sets of leg press alternating with three sets of squats

B)three set of lat pulldowns alternating with three sets of rows

C)three sets of bicep curls alternating with three sets of tricep push-downs

D)three sets of chest press alternating with three sets of chest flys

40.

What is the recommended frequency of resistance training accepted by ACSM to be a healthy adult?

A) 2-3 days per week

B) 1-2 days per week

C) 3-5 days per week

b. 5-7 days per week

41.

Which muscle is the antagonist in a leg extension?

A) Hamstrings

B) Gluteus Maximus

C) Quadriceps

D) Soleus

42.

How long should someone looking to increase strength rest in between sets of a bench press exercise?

A) 30-90 seconds

B) 30-60 seconds

C) 2-5 minutes

D) Less than 30 seconds

43.

A client has been complaining of a knee injury. He states that while playing a game of basketball, he made a sudden cut and pivoted to follow the opponent. What ligament could be most affected by this deceleration of the body?

A) Medical meniscus

B) Posterior cruciate ligament

C) Anterior cruciate ligament

D) Lateral meniscus

44.

According to the ACE IFT model, which phase has a principal training focus of increasing the time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals to improve aerobic efficiency, fitness and health?

A) Phase 3

B) Phase 2

C) Phase 4

D) Phase 1

45.

What is the movement-pattern progression after introducing lateral movements in plyometric training?

A) Backpedal, then rotational, then crossover, cutting or curving movements

B) Rotational, then crossover, cutting or curving, then backpedal movements

C) Backpedal, then crossover, cutting or curving, then rotational movements

D) Linear-forward, then backpedal, then crossover, cutting or curving, then rotational movements

46.

Carson has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of 10-15 reps on leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise workload, and he can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 lbs.. What is the best way to progress?

A) Increase the number of reps per set to 20.

B) Decrease the number of reps to 10.

C) Increase the resistance to 210 lbs..

D) Increase the resistance to 220 lbs..

47.

In order to improve power, what phase between the concentric and eccentric actions should be kept to a minimum to produce the greatest amount of muscular force for someone ready for phase 3 of training?

A) Amortization

B) Anaerobic

C) Isometric

D) Stretch-shortening cycle

48.

Jacky has been training with you for one year and has now started seeing fewer results lately and is becoming discouraged. What is the best way to increase the results she is getting when she has reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of reps?

A) Decrease resistance for a short period of time.

B) Increase training frequency to more days per week.

C) Decrease number of reps for a short period of time.

D) Change the exercise modality.

49.

A client has been strength training with you for 5 weeks and is already experiencing increased muscular strength. This strength gain is a result of which two tissue adaptations?

A) A decrease of myofibrils

B) An increase in the muscle cell sarcoplasm

C) An increase of myofibrils

D) Both b and c

50.

What training principle is someone utilizing if they are using their own bodyweight to create an overload?

A) Type

B) Intensity

C) Time

D) Frequency

51.

Which of these would not be a successful weight-management strategy for your client if they have just lost 40 lbs. and fear they may revert back?

A) Eating a low-calorie, low-fat diet

B) Eating breakfast daily

C) Engaging in regular amounts of physical activity, at least one hour each day

D) Switching up the times you eat and the type of foods to keep the body adapting

52.

What do you do if a client is asking for supplement advice?

A) Refer the client to a registered dietitian or qualified physician for further guidance.

B) Advise your client on only the supplements you are knowledgeable about.

C) Refer the client to a nutrition store.

D) Show the client only the supplements your gym carries.

53.

What should a client be proficient at prior to starting with performance training?

A) Anaerobic efficiency

B) Sufficient static and dynamic balance

C) Strong core function

D) All answers are correct

54.

What is the main focus of aerobic-efficiency training?

A) Focused for clients with endurance-performance goals.

B) Increasing the time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals.

C) Focused for clients with performance goals such as high sprinting speed.

D) Helping clients to have positive experiences with exercise.

55.

Which of these does not work to monitor cardio exercise intensity?

A) VO2

B) Number of reps performed

C) Talk test

D) % Heart rate reserve

56.

Which of these principles relate to Specificity?

A) SAID principle

B) SMART principle

C) SOAP note principle

D) DOMS principle

57.

A diabetic client has been screened thoroughly by his physician and has clearance to exercise. The blood glucose level should be measured before and after each exercise session. When should the exercise session be postponed?

A) If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is above 300 mg/dL

B) If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL

C) If the pre-exercise blood glucose level is below 100 mg/dL

D) Both a and c

58.

A 1RM test should be given in which phase of the ACE IFT Model?

A) Phase 2

B) Phase 3

C) Phase 1

D) Phase 3 or 4

59.

Which of these would you not incorporate into an exercise program for a woman with osteoporosis?

A) High-intensity weight training

B) Activities that promote balance and coordination

C) Weight bearing activities such as walking or exercising on an elliptical trainer

D) Low-intensity weight training

60.

Which phase of the ACE integrated fitness training model emphasizes progress from stability and mobility and movement training to muscle force production?

A) Phase 2

B) Phase 4

C) Phase 3

D) Phase 1

61.

Each of these are proven ways to earn a potential client’s respect and trust, besides which one?

A) Be genuinely interested in other people.

B) Encourage others to listen to your personal interests and fitness plans.

C) Try to understand the motivation behind a potential client’s decision-making process.

D) Smile and make the other person feel important.

62.

What is the best course of action if someone trips and twists their ankle and cannot get up on their own?

A) Call 911 immediately.

B) Let her know that she has sprained her ankle and take her to the hospital.

C) Help her to a chair, offer an ice pack and allow her to call someone to transport her to the hospital.

D) Help her over to a chair, wrap her ankle for her and offer her some ibuprofen.

63.

Which of these are signs and symptoms of tissue inflammation?

A) Warmth and swelling

B) Loss of function

C) Pain and redness

D) All answers are correct

64.

When opening a business, which of these would be the risk that consists of the costs of such things as property rental fees, equipment, employees and marketing?

A) Barriers to entry

B) Competition

C) Staffing

D) Financial

65.

What would be the amount of sessions per week if you wanted to make $50,000 in 50 weeks at $40 each?

A) 20

B) 35

C) 25

D) 30

66.

Which factor is important to consider when your client is working out if they have asthma?

A) Increase warm up and cool down time.

B) Consider the temperature and humidity.

C) Keep exercises at less than 80% of max workload.

D) All answers are correct.

67.

Which of these is not in the scope of practice?

A) Responding appropriately to emergency situations.

B) Administering fitness assessments.

C) Diagnosing the source of pains.

D) Assisting clients in setting and achieving goals.

68.

Which is not a type of business structure?

A) S-corps

B) A-corps

C) LLC

D) Sole proprietorship

69.

Which of these is associated with an employee versus an independent contractor?

A) Maintaining autonomy in training decisions.

B) Receiving little to no guidance.

C) Choosing when and where to work.

D) Withholding taxes from a paycheck for Social Security.

70.

An ACE certified personal trainer must complete how many continuing education hours in what period of time to keep their certification active?

A) 20 hours in 1 year

B) 20 hours in two years

C) 10 hours in two years

D) 10 hours in 1 year

71.

Which of these would be considered negligence for a personal trainer?

A) Not spotting your client during exercise.

B) Asking your client to warm up before your appointment.

C) Arriving late for a training appointment.

D) Not letting your client perform their favorite exercise.

72.

Which of these is within the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

A) Giving relationship advice to a client.

B) Gently massaging a client’s sore muscle.

C) Assisting a client in setting realistic fitness goals.

D) Advising a client on which types of supplements to take.

73.

Which of these would mean a plaintiff’s case would be dismissed in favor of the trainer?

A) The defendant doesn't keep up the standard of care required for that duty.

B) Harm or injury was caused by breach of duty by the defendant

C) Harm or injury to the plaintiff did not occur.

D) The defendant was required to protect the plaintiff from injury.

74.

Which of these is appropriate according to the ACE personal trainer’s scope of practice?

A) Massaging a client’s shoulder.

B) Setting up a calorie-restricted diet plan for a client.

C) Teaching a client self myo-fascial releasing techniques.

D) Diagnosing a client’s ankle injury.

75.

Which of these businesses offer potential problems due to personal liability?

A) Subchapter, C-corporation and subchapter S-corporation

B) Sole proprietorship and partnerships

C) Franchise operation and Limited liability partnerships

D) Subchapter S-corporation and limited liability companies

1 out of 75

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Domain 1: Professional development and responsibility. (38 questions)

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Which muscles are suspected to be tight when a posterior pelvic tilt is determined?

A) Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius

B) Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

C) Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

D) Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

During an aerobic capacity assessment, when are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?

A) After reaching the second ventilatory threshold

B) After reaching the first ventilatory threshold

C) In the last two minutes of the test

D) Throughout the entire test

Which of these tests evaluates cardio fitness?

A) Rockport Fitness Walking Test

B) Bench Press Test

C) Leg Press Test

D) Bodyweight Squat Test

A) Operant conditioning

B) Observational learning

C) Cognitions of behavior

D) Shaping

What is a commonly palpated site when checking a client’s heart rate?

A) Jugular vein

B) Tibial artery

C) Radial artery

D) Femoral artery

What method of body fat measurement is inaccurate when used on obese clients?

A) Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis

B) Total Body Electrical Conductivity

C) Skinfold Measurement

D) Hydrostatic Weighing

All of these are characteristic of rapport, besides:

A) Demonstrating warmth and genuineness

B) Short duration

C) Exhibiting empathy

D) Creating impressions of professionalism

A client is able to rotate 30 degrees during a thoracic spine mobility screen. Which area could be directly affected?

A) Lumbar spine

B) Subtalar joint

C) Iliotibial band

D) Occipital joint

Which of these symptoms should have the test terminated during any test that involves muscular endurance?

A) Cyanosis

B) Wheezing

C) Angina

D) All answers are correct

10.

Why would the prime mover of the gluteals become dormant during hip extension and allow the hamstrings to become the prime mover?

A) Reciprocal inhibition

B) Hypertonicity

C) Synergistic dominance

D) Co-contraction

11.

Before you add weighted loads into client exercises, you need to make sure your client is proficient in which of these movement patterns?

A) Core stabilization

B) Plyometric jumps

C) Dynamic warm ups

D) 1RM

12.

The resting heart rate of a client should always be checked ____________________.

A) When the client is lying down

B) When the client is sitting

C) Before the client gets out of bed in the morning

D) Before breakfast

13.

Which of these is not correctable through exercise?

A) Scoliosis

B) Forward head position

C) Pelvic tilting

D) Scapular protraction

14.

Which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise when an anterior pelvic tilt is determined?

A) Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius

B) Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

C) Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

D) Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

15.

In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would your client begin to consider the implications of inactivity while remaining sedentary?

A) Contemplation

B) Precontemplation

C) Action

D) Preparation

16.

You observed that your client shows a muscle imbalance commonly associated with lordosis posture. Which muscle is possibly shortened?

A) Neck flexors

B) Scapular stabilizers

C) Lumbar extensors

D) Hip extensors

17.

What would allow for a lower resting heart rate due to increased blood pumped from the heart?

A) Stroke volume

B) Korotkoff sounds

C) Cerebrovascular accident

D) Hypotension

18.

A) Planning Stage

B) Action Stage

C) Investigation Stage

D) Rapport Stage

19.

What is a correctable postural deviation?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis

B) Side dominance

C) Tibial torsion

D) Congenital conditions

20.

If your client is complaining of pain in the anterior part of the lower leg, what is the best course of action to continue the exercise program?

A) Tell your client they have shin splints and need to stretch and ice them when they gets home.

B) Cancel their sessions until the pain goes away.

C) Modify the program with cross training.

D) Continue as planned.

21.

What are the three sites that are suggested for skinfold measurements with men?

A) Biceps, thigh and suprailium

B) Triceps, thigh and suprailium

C) Triceps, chest and thigh

D) Chest, thigh and abdominal

22.

What is the correct strategy to deal with pain or any underlying pathologies if a client mentions lower back pain from certain movement??

A) Screen for pronation or supination

B) Strengthen the rectus abdominus to correct the length-tension relationship

C) Improve mobility through the ankle and hips

D) Refer out to a qualified healthcare professional

23.

What are the proper units of measurement we use to calculate BMI?

A) Height (in)/Weight (lb.

B) Weight (kg)/Height (m)

C) Height (m)/Weight (kg)

D) Weight (lb./Height (in)

24.

Which is not a step within the planning stage?

A) Formulating a plan

B) Generating and discussing alternatives

C) Setting goals

D) Observing an exercise

25.

Each of these questions are likely to appear on the Par-Q questionnaire with the exception of which one?

A) Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs?

B) Do you have any joint pain?

C) Have you experienced chest pain?

D) Can you exercise during your work day?

26.

Which of these medications decreases blood pressure?

A) Diuretics

B) Antihistamines

C) Ibuprofen

D) Decongestants

27.

What is the typical standard deviation of an individual’s maximum heart rate?

A) +/- 15 bpm

B) +/- 18 bpm

C) +/- 12 bpm

D) +/- 10 bpm

28.

A client tells you a specific goal is that she wishes to lose 10 lbs. within two months. What stage of the client-trainer relationship would this SMART goal be developed?

A) Investigation stage

B) Action stage

C) Planning stage

D) Rapport stage

29.

The purpose of pre-participation screening is:

A) Identifying individuals who need no supervision and have no medical conditions.

B) An acknowledgement by the client giving informed consent.

C) A minimal health-risk appraisal.

D) Detection of at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation.

30.

In what stage of the client to trainer relationship should the trainer learn the likes and dislikes of the client?

A) Action Stage

B) Investigation Stage

C) Maintenance Stage

D) Planning Stage

31.

In what location should we measure the arm?

A) Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed.

B) Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process when the bicep flexed.

C) Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process when the arm is relaxed.

D) Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed.

32.

What answer is not a risk factor for ITBS?

A) Knee valgus

B) Knee Varus

C) Leg-length discrepancy

D) Pes planus

33.

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship will the trainer first establish trust by listening to a new clients questions and concerns regarding her anxiety of working out in a new environment?

A) Action Stage

B) Rapport Stage

C) Contemplation Stage

D) Investigation Stage

34.

How often should heart rate be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A) Every minute

B) Every 3 minutes

C) Every 30 seconds

D) Continuously

35.

What is the total number of calories you would consume if you ate all of the servings of this snack? 310 cals per serving, and two servings per pack.

A) 310

B) 830

C) 620

D) 155

36.

Which of these women has a waist to hip ratio that puts her at risk for obesity-related disease?

A) Emily with a ratio of 0.60

B) Both Jeanie and April

C) April with a ratio of .87

D) Jeanie with a ratio of 0.81

37.

Your new client is 52 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?

A) 168 beats per minute

B) 152 beats per minute

C) 160 beats per minute

D) 186 beats per minute

38.

Which of these is not a lateral ankle ligament?

A) Calcaneofibular ligament

B) Posterior talofibular ligament

C) Medial collateral ligament

D) Anterior talofibular ligament

1 out of 38

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