FREE ACSM Practice Tests 2023 - 240+ Practice Questions

After you’ve taken the full ACSM practice test, you’ll know the areas of knowledge in the ACSM curriculum that you need to focus on during your studies. You can use the domain quizzes lower in this article to focus on those sections once your ACSM practice exam is complete.

ACSM practice tests - ACSM personal trainer textbook laid out on table with scantron sheet to take ACSM practice exam

Free ACSM Quizzes

Domain 1: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment Quizzes

Throughout this domain, you will be tested on topics like:

Initial Interview Prep
Client Interviewing Techniques
Review and Analysis of Data for Clients
Behavioral Readiness Evaluation
The Assessment of Health and Physical Fitness Components
Training Plan Development

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Welcome to your ACSM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 1. Initial client consultation and assessment. (30 questions)

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Best of Luck!

For an asymptomatic middle-aged woman referred for stress testing, which of the following maximal heart rate equations should be used?

A. 206 - (0.88 x age)

B. 216.6 - (0.84 x age)

C. 208 - (0.7 x age)

D. 220 - age

What is the minimum amount of time that should be given between attempts for a 1 RM bench press assessment?

A. 5 minutes

B. 3 minutes

C. 2 minutes

D. 1 minute

Syncope can best be defined as:

A. Unpleasant awareness of the forceful or rapid beating of the heart

B. Loss of consciousness

C. Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing

D. Knifelike, sharp jabs aggravated by respiration

When using the client-centered approach during a consultation, how much of the time will the personal trainer be speaking?

A. 15% to 30% of the time

B. 50% to 75% of the time

C. 25% to 50% of the time

D. 10% to 15% of the time

What is the purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)?

A. To diagnose cardiovascular disease and refer to the appropriate health professional

B. To help design the training program

C. To determine the client's motivation level

D. To screen out clients from participating in physical activities that may be too strenuous for them

The study of human movement is defined as:

A. Kinesthetics

B. Exercise science

C. Biomechanics

D. Kinesiology

The gastrocnemius is considered which type of muscle during a calf raise exercise?

A. Agonist

B. Synergist

C. Antagonist

D. Passive

All of the following muscles comprise the posterior musculature of the spine except:

A. Quadratus lumborum

B. Multifidus muscles

C. Intrinsic rotators

D. Erector spinae

Which of the following is not a common site for skinfold measurement?

A. Midaxillary

B. Subradial

C. Subscapular

D. Triceps

10.

Which of the following is not a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

A. Being a smoker

B. Being a female 50 years old

C. Having a BMI of 35

D. Being a male 45 years old

11.

A BMI value of 24.8 is classified as:

A. Overweight

B. Underweight

C. Normal

D. Class I obesity

12.

Which components should a health history evaluation include?

A. Medical history, medications, and exercise history

B. Family history, medications, and nutrition

C. Medical history, medications, and sleep patterns

D. Food log, medications, and sleep patterns

13.

What are the two most common tests used to measure agility?

A. Pro-agility test and 40-yd dash

B. T-test and vertical jump test

C. T-test and 40-yd dash

D. T-test and pro-agility test

14.

Which of the following risk factors is most likely to become acutely aggravated by resistance training?

A. Hyperglycemia

B. Hypertension

C. Dyslipidemia

D. Obesity

15.

All of the following are factors in the relative contribution of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism during exercise except:

A. Cardiovascular function

B. Muscular extraction

C. Hydration

D. Ventilation

16.

Which of the following muscles dorsiflexes the foot?

A. Gastrocnemius

B. Plantaris

C. Tibialis anterior

D. Soleus

17.

For a woman with a waist circumference of 90 cm, at which BMI is she considered to have a high risk of disease?

A. Between 25 and 29.99

B. Greater than 40

C. Between 30 and 34.99

D. Between 35 and 39.99

18.

Which of the following increases at the beginning of exercise?

A. Relative contribution of aerobic metabolism

B. Post-exercise oxygen consumption

C. pH of muscle tissue

D. Oxygen deficit

19.

According to social cognitive theory (SCT), what are the two most important factors of behavior change?

A. Self-efficacy and motivation

B. Outcome expectations and motivation

C. Outcome expectations and self-efficacy

D. Motivation and self-control

20.

Which of these exercises occurs in the frontal plane?

A. Butt kicks

B. Pendulum leg swings (front to back)

C. Side shuffle

D. Wood chop

21.

Which stage of the Transtheoretical Model is characterized by a change being planned within the next 6 months?

A. Preparation

B. Contemplation

C. Maintenance

D. Pre-contemplation

22.

You are conducting a fitness assessment on Amy, who is a potential client. When you measure her resting blood pressure, her result is 145/79 (mmHg). If repeated testing on subsequent days produces similar results, and the standard for comparison is 120/80, what condition might this indicate?

A. Diastolic hypotension

B. Systolic hypertension

C. Systolic hypotension

D. Diastolic hypertension

23.

What does the acronym PAR-Q+ stand for?

A. Performance Activity Requirement Questionnaire

B. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire

C. Performance Action Readiness Questionnaire

D. Personal Action Readiness Questionnaire

24.

All of the following are diseases that influence the level of preparticipation physical activity screening except:

A. Renal disease

B. Pulmonary disease

C. Cardiovascular disease

D. Metabolic disease

25.

Which structure in the heart allows the ventricles to fill with blood before contraction occurs?

A. Atrioventricular (AV) node

B. Purkinje fibers

C. Bundle of His

D. Sinoatrial (SA) node

26.

As a personal trainer, what aspect of medical advice is under the scope of practice?

A. Giving clients advice

B. Providing clients with treatments for diseases based on advice

C. Diagnosing conditions based on advice

D. Aiding clients in following advice

27.

How can an untrained individual and a trained individual (who has a lower resting heart rate) have similar resting cardiac outputs?

A. Decreased resistance to blood flow in trained individuals

B. Larger stroke volume in trained individuals

C. Higher blood volume in trained individuals

D. Lower blood pressure in trained individuals

28.

Which of the following is the medical term for shortness of breath?

A. Dyspnea

B. Orthopnea

C. Syncope

D. Tachycardia

29.

What does the "R" stand for in the SMART acronym?

A. Realistic

B. Radical

C. Relevant

D. Redundant

30.

Which of the following methods of measuring body composition is likely to be the most inaccurate?

A. Bioelectrical impedance measurements

B. Skinfold measurements

C. Height and weight measurements

D. Waist-to-hip measurements

1 out of 30

Time is Up!

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Domain 2: Exercise Programming/Implementation Quizzes

Throughout this domain, you will be tested on topics like:

Review of Goals and History of Clients
Selection of Exercise Modality
Determination of FITT-VP principles
Review and Beginning of Proposed Client Plans
Monitoring Client Performance
Recommending Exercise Improvements
Getting Feedback from Clients

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Welcome to your ACSM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 2. Exercise programming/implementation. (30 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free ACSM Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

When working with an older adult on balance training while seated, what is an appropriate progression for arm placement?

A. Reaching the arms out to the sides, placing the hands on the thighs, placing the hands on the head

B. Using a surface for support, placing the hands on the thighs, crossing the arms in front of the chest

C. Crossing the arms in front of the chest, placing the hands on the head, reaching the arms out to the sides

D. Placing the hands on the thighs, placing the hands on the head, reaching both arms straight out in front at shoulder height

DOMS may last upwards of how many days for some individuals?

A. 8-10 days

B. 3-4 days

C. 5-7 days

D. 1-2 days

Which of the following muscle groups should be exercised first?

A. Large muscle groups

B. Central muscle groups

C. Posterior muscle groups

D. Small muscle groups

All of the following are correct sequences for a resistance training session except:

A. Exercises for strong areas before exercises for weak areas

B. Large muscle group before small muscle group exercises

C. Multi-joint before single-joint exercises

D. Explosive power type lifts before basic strength exercises

Which of the following endurance exercise modes is the most appropriate for a beginner client with type II diabetes who may have peripheral neuropathy?

A. Resistance circuit training

B. Stationary bike

C. Treadmill running

D. Step aerobics

What type of strength curve makes it possible to lift more weight if only the bottom 1/2 of a repetition is performed?

A. Inverted-U strength curve

B. Descending strength curve

C. Bell-shaped strength curve

D. Ascending strength curve

Which of the following is an appropriate stretch for the knee extensors?

A. Seated hamstring stretch

B. Standing quadriceps stretch

C. Supine rotational stretch

D. Supine knees to chest

If exercise is done intermittently, what should be the minimum amount of time for each interval?

A. 10 minutes

B. 5 minutes

C. 20 minutes

D. 15 minutes

During pregnancy, there is an increase in relaxin levels in the body. What effect does this have?

A. Increased fatigue

B. Nausea

C. Increased joint range of motion

D. Decreased venous return

10.

Which of the following describes an endurance training routine?

A. Lower weight and higher repetitions

B. Lower weight and longer rest periods

C. Higher weight and lower repetitions

D. Higher weight and shorter rest periods

11.

What is an appropriate progression per week for advancing cardiorespiratory exercise for a beginner who does 60 total minutes of low-intensity exercise for the first week?

A. Add 20-25 minutes per week until they reach 150 minutes/week

B. Add 10-15 minutes/week until they reach 120 minutes/week

C. Progress to 30 minutes of low-intensity exercise and 30 minutes of moderate intensity exercise in week two

D. Progress to 60 minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week

12.

Which of the following combinations of repetitions are the most effective?

A. Concentric-eccentric

B. Eccentric-concentric

C. Concentric-isometric

D. Isometric-eccentric

13.

All of the following are acute program variables except:

A. Amount of resistance and number of repetitions

B. Number of sets

C. Order of exercises

D. Duration of stretching

14.

Which of the following general gender differences might be a reason females generally have more flexibility (ROM) than males?

A. Females tend to have wider and shallower hips

B. Females tend to have larger joint spaces

C. Females tend to have a smaller bone structure

D. Females have the protein elastin

15.

In which phase of the clean does the "double knee bend" occur?

A. Transition

B. Catch

C. First pull

D. Second pull

16.

What type of resistance training is recommended for diabetic individuals with retinopathy?

A. Variable resistance training

B. Circuit training

C. Maximum strength training

D. Functional isometrics

17.

Which of the following is the primary goal of an aerobic exercise program for clients with heart disease?

A. Positive risk factor modification

B. Weight loss

C. Increased enjoyment of exercise

D. Decreased sedentary behavior

18.

All of the following are methods that a personal trainer can use to increase the intensity of a balance exercise except:

A. Keeping the center of mass within the base of support

B. Narrowing the base of support

C. Displacing the center of mass outside the base of support

D. Having the client close their eyes

19.

Where should your weight be distributed in your feet during a back squat?

A. Toward the heels

B. On the forefoot

C. Starting on the forefoot and shifting to the heels at the bottom

D. Equally distributed between the heel and forefoot

20.

Which of the following is the primary movement during the second pull of a power clean?

A. Horizontal adduction

B. Flexion

C. Extension

D. Abduction

21.

Which of the following exercises is an Olympic lift?

A. Bench press

B. Snatch

C. Deadlift

D. Front squat

22.

Which of the following should a personal trainer use as a baseline for determining the load a client lifts?

A. VO2 max

B. RPE scale

C. 1 RM

D. RM target range

23.

How often should children participate in resistance activity?

A. 1 day a week

B. Never

C. At least 3 days a week

D. At least 2 days a week

24.

All of the following are examples of form drills except:

A. Figure-8s

B. Arm swings

C. "Butt kickers"

D. High knees

25.

For sports that focus on muscular strength, power, and endurance, when should stretching take place?

A. In between exercises

B. During the warm-up

C. On an as-needed basis

D. After the activity

26.

For a beginner exerciser, how many sets are necessary to achieve the stimulus needed from exercise for progress?

A. 1 set

B. 2 sets

C. 3 sets

D. 4 sets

27.

At approximately what percentage of the 1RM is peak power produced during the Olympic lifting movements?

A. 60%

B. 40%

C. 95-100%

D. 80%

28.

All of the following resistance training contractions are acceptable for a pregnant client except:

A. Slow concentric contractions

B. Isometric contractions

C. Isotonic contractions

D. Fast eccentric contractions

29.

How long should the isometric contraction last during the contraction phase of contract-relax PNF stretching?

A. 1-2 seconds

B. 3-6 seconds

C. 10-15 seconds

D. 6-10 seconds

30.

In which position does orthopnea occur?

A. Having the feet elevated

B. Standing

C. Sitting

D. Lying down

1 out of 30

Time is Up!

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Domain 3: Exercise Leadership and Client Education Quizzes

Throughout this domain, you will be tested on topics like:

Using Communication Techniques to Enhance Performance
Education of Clients with Scientific Resources

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Welcome to your ACSM CPT Practice Quizzes.

Domain 3. Exercise leadership and client education. (30 questions)

Please click NEXT to start your Free ACSM Practice Quizzes right away.

Best of Luck!

What is the maximum daily recommended amount of protein intake for an adult athlete?

A. 1.7 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight

B. 2.2 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight

C. 1.2 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight

D. 2.5 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight

Informational support can be defined as:

A. Providing an individual with constructive feedback

B. Encouragement or acceptance from others

C. Advice or information given in regard to exercise

D. Material aid given to provide an individual the opportunity to exercise

All of the following are fat-soluble vitamins except:

A. Vitamin K

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin B

D. Vitamin A

All of the following are considered environmental barriers to exercise except:

A. Cost of facility

B. Bad weather

C. Gender role expectations

D. Lack of shower facilities

Each of the following are nutrients that provide energy except:

A. Water

B. Fats

C. Proteins

D. Carbohydrates

All of the following are benefits of eating small but frequent meals except:

A. Lower metabolic rate

B. Improved physical performance

C. Lower stress hormone production

D. Lower insulin response

Exercise self-regulation includes all of these strategies except:

A. Planning the workout before it begins

B. Managing the schedule to include exercise

C. Excluding distracting friends from exercise

D. Identifying a variety of ways to exercise

All of the following are water-soluble vitamins except:

A. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin C

C. Niacin

D. Thiamin (vitamin B1)

All of the following are examples of tangible support except:

A. Client's friend offering to pick up his dry cleaning to give him more time to work out

B. Client's family member offering to watch the kids while he works out

C. Client's spouse taking a walk with him

D. Client's friend paying for a month of gym membership for him

10.

Which of the following is advertised as useful for improving endurance?

A. Caffeine

B. Androstenedione

C. Omega-3 fatty acids

D. Creatine

11.

As a personal trainer exhibiting empathy, what is the best way to ensure you are understanding what a client is saying?

A. Repeat the client's words

B. Clarify what was said in the form of a question

C. Take session notes

D. Ensure that their verbal and nonverbal cues are not contradictory

12.

How many different classes of nutrients are available for consumption to aid in human function?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Six

D. Three

13.

The measure of the effect that carbohydrates have on an individual's blood sugar level is referred to as:

A. The Glycemic Index

B. The Amino Index

C. The Gluten Index

D. The Glycogen Index

14.

Observing nonverbal cues is an element of:

A. Self-regulation

B. Active listening

C. Goal setting

D. Developing rapport

15.

All of the following are examples of high-carbohydrate snacks except:

A. English muffin

B. Peanut butter

C. Orange juice

D. Saltine crackers

16.

Potential health risks are considered very high for a woman with a waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) of more than:

A. 0.75

B. 0.80

C. 0.82

D. 0.86

17.

For which of the following vitamins does the body have a limited storage capacity?

A. Vitamin E

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin A

18.

Self-efficacy is one of the leading factors in determining exercise adherence. What does this describe?

A. Capability of success

B. Planned strategy for success

C. Knowledge necessary for success

D. Confidence in one's ability to succeed

19.

Which of the following macronutrients is the most calorie-dense?

A. Alcohol

B. Protein

C. Fat

D. Carbohydrate

20.

Which of the following is considered a high-quality or complete protein?

A. Whole grain bread

B. Salmon

C. Peanut butter

D. Black beans

21.

Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index?

A. Carrots

B. Chickpeas

C. Yogurt

D. Whole grain rye bread

22.

Which of the following protein caloric intakes would be appropriate for a 135-pound marathon runner?

A. 296 kcal

B. 250 kcal

C. 648 kcal

D. 442 kcal

23.

Which of the following barriers would a contingency plan help a client overcome?

A. Bad weather

B. Fear of injury

C. Lack of access to programs

D. Lack of social support

24.

Which of the following techniques is believed to be the most reliable when it comes to understanding another person?

A. Displaying empathy

B. Listening to spoken statements

C. Watching nonverbal cues

D. Paraphrasing spoken statements

25.

Which of the following provides cushioning against concussive forces?

A. Ligaments

B. Tendons

C. Fat

D. Muscle

26.

All of the following are minerals except:

A. Thiamin

B. Zinc

C. Iron

D. Calcium

27.

All of the following traits are possessed by a professional who creates a hospitality experience except:

A. Work ethic

B. Perseverance

C. Self-awareness

D. Optimistic warmth

FREE ACSM Practice Tests 2023 – 180+ Practice Questions

Free ACSM Quizzes

Domain 1: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment Quizzes

Domain 2: Exercise Programming/Implementation Quizzes

Domain 3: Exercise Leadership and Client Education Quizzes