ISSA Practice Test – 280 Real Exam-Style Questions

Once you finish the ISSA practice exam above, you’ll have a better understanding of which domains you know better and which need more work. Afterwards, you can use the domain quizzes below to dial-in your weaker areas.

ISSA practice tests - ISSA personal trainer textbook laid out with ISSA exam scantron sheet to take the ISSA practice exams.

Free ISSA CPT Quizzes

Domain 1: Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology)

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Domain 1: Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology). (30 questions)

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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

A. Slow to fatigue

B. Larger in size

C. Short-term contractions

D. Decreased oxygen delivery

None

The patella is considered to be which type of bone?

A. Irregular bone

B. Short bone

C. Flat bone

D. Sesamoid bone

None

Which of the following muscles commonly causes a decreased neural drive of the gluteus maximus?

A. Psoas

B. Hamstrings

C. Gluteus medius

D. Adductors

None

What is the unique feature of Type IIa muscle fibers?

A. They can produce the most speed and strength

B. They can provide the most stabilization force without fatiguing as quickly

C. They are capable of creating energy from both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism in nearly equal amounts

D. They contain the most mitochondria, myoglobin, and capillaries

None

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except:

A. Upper trapezius

B. Levator scapulae

C. Sternocleidomastoid

D. Deep cervical flexors

None

How does the body use the central nervous system to create movement?

A. Through proprioception, which is its ability to sense the relative position of body parts

B. Through sensory function, which is its ability to detect alterations in the body's internal or external environment

C. Through motor function, which is the neuromuscular response to sensory data

D. Through integrative function, which is its capacity to evaluate sensory information and choose a suitable reaction

None

What are the two mechanoreceptors involved in flexibility?

A. Muscle spindles and connective tissues

B. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) and efferent neurons

C. Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)

D. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) and connective tissues

None

Motor neurons are also referred to as which of the following?

A. Sensory neurons

B. Interneurons

C. Afferent neurons

D. Efferent neurons

None

Inside the myofibrils of muscle tissue, which two types of contractile myofilaments can be found?

A. Sarcoplasm and plasma

B. Actin and myosin

C. Tropomyosin and troponin

D. Agonist and synergist

None

10.

Which of the following is the body's most usable form of energy?

A. Adenosine diphosphate

B. Adenosine triphosphate

C. Macronutrients (protein, fat, carbohydrates)

D. Micronutrients (minerals, vitamins, phytonutrients)

None

11.

Golfing and swinging a bat are both examples of movement that occurs in which plane of motion?

A. Sagittal

B. Frontal

C. Longitudinal

D. Tranverse

None

12.

Golfer’s elbow is an example of what type of injury?

A. Hypomobility

B. Unbalanced training

C. Suboptimal positioning

D. Pattern overload

None

13.

Which of the following is not a kinetic chain checkpoint term?

A. Foot

B. Core

C. Knee

D. Shoulders

None

14.

When muscle contracts, what happens within the sarcomere?

A. It awaits an electrical impulse from the CNS

B. It shortens

C. It stays the same

D. It lengthens

None

15.

Reciprocal inhibition can best be described as:

A. When a muscle relaxes to allow another muscle to contract

B. The resting length of a muscle and the tension that muscle can produce at that resting length

C. Response to stimuli that activates movement in muscles

D. Muscle groups producing movement around a joint by moving simultaneously

None

16.

Mechanoreceptors are located in all of the following except:

A. Joint capsules

B. Skeletal muscle

C. Pacinian corpuscles

D. Tendons

None

17.

How does joint connective tissue function?

A. Joint connective tissues are both fibrous and flexible, providing stability and proprioception

B. Joint connective tissues have both cartilage and synovial fluid, providing mobility and lubrication

C. Joint connective tissues are both tender and inflexible, providing stability and mobility

D. Joint connective tissues are both stiff and refractory, providing support and proprioception

None

18.

Which of the following is not a primary muscle of the global stabilization system?

A. Quadratus lumborum

B. Gluteus medius

C. Latissimus dorsi

D. Rectus abdominis

None

19.

Which of the following best describes the sliding filament theory?

A. How thick and thin filaments in the epimysium slide past each other

B. How thick and thin filaments in the motor unit slide past each other

C. How thick and thin filaments in the capillary slide past each other

D. How thick and thin filaments in the sarcomere slide past each other

None

20.

Which of the following are the two hormones responsible for the "fight-or-flight" response?

A. Epinephrine and testosterone

B. Growth hormone and testosterone

C. Testosterone and estrogen

D. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

None

21.

Which of the following is not a division of the vertebral (spinal) column?

A. Sternum

B. Coccyx

C. Thoracic

D. Sacrum

None

22.

The length–tension relationship (LTR) can best be described as:

A. A neuromuscular reflex that inhibits opposing muscles during movement

B. A muscle group whose primary function is to provide joint support and stabilization

C. The ability of a muscle to produce force at its current range

D. A muscle group moving together to produce movement around a joint

None

23.

All of the following are causes of restrictive lung disease except:

A. Fractured ribs

B. Asthma

C. A neuromuscular disease

D. Obesity

None

24.

The rotator cuff is comprised of all the following muscles except:

A. Teres major

B. Infraspinatus

C. Subscapularis

D. Supraspinatus

None

25.

All of the following are potential side effects of elevated cortisol levels except:

A. Increased body composition (specifically abdominal fat)

B. Decreased fat utilization

C. Decreased breathing rate

D. Breakdown of muscle tissue

None

26.

What might upper extremity exercise result in for an individual with lung disease?

A. Muscle wasting

B. Onset of dyspnea earlier than usual

C. Hypertrophied neck muscles

D. Decreased muscular performance

None

27.

The sliding filament theory can be best described as:

A. The process of electrical impulses sliding from the CNS down the axon of the neuron, thus releasing neurotransmitters to initiate muscle contraction

B. The process of neural stimulation creating a muscle contraction

C. Troponin providing binding sites along the actin filament for both calcium and tropomyosin when a muscle needs to contract

D. How thick and thin filaments within the sarcomere move past one another, resulting in shortened muscle and force production

None

28.

Which of the following bones move with the ribs to form the rear anchor of the rib cage?

A. Lumbar vertebrae

B. Cervical vertebrae

C. Thoracic vertebrae

D. Sacrum

None

29.

In regard to anatomical position, where is the gastrocnemius in relation to the soleus?

A. Inferior

B. Medial

C. Superior

D. Lateral

None

30.

A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates is known as a(n):

A. Action potential

B. Motor unit

C. Neurotransmitter

D. Synapse

None

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Domain 2: Nutrition

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Domain 2: Nutrition. (30 questions)

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Which of the following is a potential effect of excess vitamin A intake?

A. Elevated thyroid hormone concentration

B. Nerve damage

C. Diarrhea

D. Liver damage

None

What percentage of total calories should come from fat sources?

A. 15-20% of total daily calories

B. 20-35% of total daily calories

C. 35-45% of total daily calories

D. 10-15% of total daily calories

None

Which of the following best describes Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)?

A. The recommended intake for specific nutrients

B. The estimated amount of a nutrient per day by which the needs of 50% of the population will be met

C. The estimated amount of a nutrient per day consumed by people assumed to be maintaining adequate nutrition

D. The estimated amount of a nutrient per day considered necessary for good health

None

What is the best way for an individual to minimize blood sugar fluctuations?

A. Eating larger, less frequent meals

B. Eating a high-fat diet

C. Eating a low-carbohydrate diet

D. Eating small, frequent meals

None

All of the following are complete protein food sources except:

A. Macaroni and cheese

B. Yogurt and granola

C. Sunflower seeds

D. Whole egg

None

Which of the following is a potential effect of ingesting too much iron?

A. Gastrointestinal irritation

B. Impaired immune function

C. Kidney stones

D. Fatigue

None

An individual should consume at least how many calories per day to ensure that they are receiving proper and adequate nutrition?

A. 1,500 calories per day

B. 1,200 calories per day

C. 1,000 calories per day

D. 800 calories per day

None

Which of the following is true regarding carbohydrates?

A. They contribute to the obesity epidemic

B. They cause diabetes

C. They supply energy

D. All types should be avoided

None

Which of the following is not a potential effect of excess calcium intake?

A. Nausea

B. Constipation

C. Liver damage

D. Kidney stones

None

10.

Which of the following foods is highest on the glycemic index (GI)?

A. Rice cakes

B. Popcorn

C. Peanuts

D. Sweet potato

None

11.

What percentage of an individual's total calorie count should come from carbohydrates?

A. 25-55% of their total calories

B. 10-35% of their total calories

C. 30-65% of their total calories

D. 45-65% of their total calories

None

12.

Which of the following describes the thermic effect of food (TEF)?

A. The energy used to process and store food that is expended above the resting metabolic rate (RMR)

B. The energy expended for basic body functions

C. The energy used in physical activity that is expended above the resting metabolic rate (RMR)

D. The energy expended when processing macronutrients

None

13.

How many calories per gram does protein provide?

A. 4 calories per gram

B. 7 calories per gram

C. 9 calories per gram

D. 5 calories per gram

None

14.

All of the following foods are sources of trans-fatty acids except:

A. Margarine

B. Doughnuts

C. Fried chicken

D. Whole milk

None

15.

A diet that includes a higher intake of saturated fats is associated with increased levels of:

A. Low-density-lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

B. Blood pressure and low-density-lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

C. Total cholesterol and high-density-lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol

D. High-density-lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol

None

16.

Which type of energy is contained in food?

A. Chemical energy

B. Anaerobic energy

C. Aerobic energy

D. Metabolic energy

None

17.

All of the following are monosaccharides except:

A. Fructose

B. Sucrose

C. Glucose

D. Galactose

None

18.

What is the recommended daily intake of water for sedentary adult females and males, respectively?

A. 155 oz/day, 190 oz/day

B. 75 oz/day, 100 oz/day

C. 85 oz/day, 115 oz/day

D. 80 oz/day, 105 oz/day

None

19.

What type of fatty acids are omega-3?

A. Trans-fatty acids

B. Saturated fatty acids

C. Polyunsaturated fatty acids

D. Monounsaturated fatty acids

None

20.

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) represents which of the following?

A. The amount of a nutrient per day by which the needs of 50% of the population will be met

B. The amount of nutrient per day consumed by people assumed to be maintaining adequate nutrition

C. The highest level of a nutrient per day that is unlikely to pose a risk of adverse health effects

D. A general term for a set of reference values to plan and assess nutrient intake of healthy individuals

None

21.

All of the following are primarily made up of polyunsaturated fats except:

A. Corn oil

B. Soy oil

C. Coconut oil

D. Sunflower oil

None

22.

All of the following are nonessential amino acids except:

A. Lysine

B. Glutamine

C. Aspartic acid

D. Tyrosine

None

23.

When does protein become a significant fuel source?

A. During steady-state exercise

B. During high-intensity exercise

C. During protein synthesis

D. During starvation

None

24.

All of the following are potential adverse side effects of androgenic-anabolic steroid use in adult males except:

A. Acne

B. Loss of head hair

C. Decreased appetite

D. Sleeplessness

None

25.

All of the following nutrients have a great potential for an excess dosage in dietary supplements except:

A. Vitamin D

B. Iron

C. Zinc

D. Vitamin C

None

26.

How much of an individual's total energy expenditure is a result of physical activity?

A. Approximately 70%

B. Approximately 20%

C. Approximately 10%

D. Approximately 50%

None

27.

All of the following are signs of dehydration except:

A. Water retention

B. Decreased sweat rate

C. Low blood pressure

D. Slow heartbeat

None

28.

Which of the following stimulants is a banned substance?

A. Ergogenic aid

B. Creatine

C. Caffeine

D. DHEA

None

29.

Which type of exercise does caffeine supplementation not seem to have an ergogenic effect on?

A. High-intensity, short-duration exercise lasting about 5 minutes

B. It is beneficial for every type and duration of exercise

C. Sprint-type efforts lasting 90 seconds or less

D. Endurance exercise lasting more than an hour

None

30.

Which organization is responsible for ensuring a supplement is safe before it is marketed?

A. The supplement manufacturer

B. The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

C. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

D. Both the supplement manufacturer and the FDA

None

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Domain 3: Intake and Ongoing Evaluation

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Domain 3: Intake and Ongoing Evaluation. (30 questions)

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Which method of dietary assessment that can be provided by a personal trainer is considered the most valid?

A. Diet history

B. Dietary record

C. Dietary recall

None

Which of the following cognitive-behavioral approaches can help distract an individual during strenuous exercise?

A. Association

B. Disassociation

C. Self-monitoring

D. Social support

None

In which of the following types of dietary assessment does a client answer questions about typical eating habits and give an estimation of their weight over the last few years?

A. Dietary recall

B. Diet record

C. Diet history

None

An excessive arch in the lower back when at rest is known as what?

A. Lordosis

B. Kyphosis

C. Scoliosis

D. Stenosis

None

How can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

A. Clarify misconceptions about exercise

B. Discuss the best program for them

C. Discuss progress and suggest changes to the training plan

D. Continue educating them concerning the benefits of exercise

None

If a client's BMI is considered to be a healthy weight, what type of reference perspective is being used?

A. Health-referenced standard

B. Criterion-referenced standard

C. Norm-referenced standard

None

Which of the following is an example of informational support?

A. Empathy toward the client

B. A ride to the gym

C. Getting a coworker to exercise with the client

D. Advice on choosing an exercise program

None

During the initial client consultation, within which form would a client find information about client-trainer confidentiality?

A. Informed consent

B. Medical questionnaire

C. Assumption of risk agreement

D. Client-trainer agreement

None

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

A. "Have you ever participated in high-intensity interval training?"

B. "Why do you want to begin working out?"

C. "Do you like resistance training?"

D. "Do you have any fitness and health goals?"

None

10.

Which of the following is considered companionship support?

A. A babysitter

B. A friendly trainer

C. A workout buddy

D. A workout plan from the trainer

None

11.

For the YMCA step test, how many steps are completed over the test duration?

A. 24 steps

B. 72 steps

C. 288 steps

None

12.

Of the different types of fats, which should be consumed the least, or not at all?

A. Polyunsaturated fats

B. Trans fats

C. Monounsaturated fats

None

13.

What is the recommended way for an individual to self-monitor?

A. Keeping a daily written record

B. Weekly goal writing

C. Having daily conversations with their trainer

D. Engaging in positive self-talk regularly

None

14.

All of the following are generally included in a client-trainer agreement except:

A. Description of the cancellation policy

B. Documentation of services provided

C. A PAR-Q

D. Information on the payment process

None

15.

How can a trainer help a client develop positive self-talk?

A. Offer emotional support during the client's frustrations

B. Train the client in how to identify and reframe negative thoughts

C. Help the client monitor their exercise habits

D. Educate the client on how negative thoughts are harmful

None

16.

Which of the following is the best example of reflecting?

A. "Did you know that weightlifting supports bone density?"

B. "I'm glad that you enjoy weightlifting."

C. "So you like weightlifting, running, and swimming?"

D. "I heard you say that you've had some experience with weightlifting before."

None

17.

What are SMART goals?

A. Sensible Measurable Appropriate Rational Thorough

B. Significant Material Assessable Reachable Thoughtful

C. Set Modest Accessible Restricted Temperate

D. Specific Measurable Attainable Realistic Timely

None

18.

Emily is a 21-year-old athlete who weighs 140 pounds. Which of the following best represents her recommended daily protein intake?

A. 168 grams

B. 51 grams

C. 95 grams

None

19.

In response to exercise, a client is showing a lower heart rate than what would normally be expected. Which of the following medications is this client possibly using?

A. Beta-blockers

B. Anti-depressants

C. Aspirin

None

20.

Contraction of the hip flexors and lumbar extensors results in what postural change?

A. Anterior pelvic tilt

B. Rotation of the pelvis

C. Lateral pelvic tilt

D. Posterior pelvic tilt

None

21.

Which of the following is the beginning of the Stages of Change model?

A. Preaction

B. Preparation

C. Precontemplation

D. Action

None

22.

Which of the following maladies that can be uncovered by a medical history poses the least immediate danger to a client beginning an exercise program?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B. Coronary artery disease

C. Metabolic disease

D. Orthopedic conditions

None

23.

For which of the following clients is a referral to a registered dietitian the most appropriate?

A. A 45-year-old female vegan

B. A 20-year-old female athlete

C. A 30-year-old male with diabetes

None

24.

How is parental support beneficial for clients?

A. Parents can make their children exercise

B. Parents lead by example, and their views on exercise are often passed down to their children

C. Parents can tell their children to exercise, which will result in the children's consistency

D. Parents may try to make exercise unpleasant for their children

None

25.

All of the following are considered nutrition categories in the USDA MyPlate classification except:

A. Grains

B. Protein

C. Water

D. Fruits

None

26.

Which of the following can become problematic when combined with negative self-talk?

A. Cognitive fusion

B. Outcome goals

C. Psyching up

D. Implementation intentions

None

27.

Which of the following is the most important factor in promoting weight loss with a client?

A. Achieve a negative energy balance

B. Perform regular physical activity

C. Eat low-energy-dense foods

None

28.

Which of the following describes an intrinsic approach to exercise?

A. Distracts from negative feelings associated with stress

B. Emphasizes the end products of performance expressed in terms of personal achievement

C. Targets an issue causing stress to reduce the effects of stress

D. Emphasizes the enjoyment value of exercise, making it about more than just a means to goal accomplishment

None

29.

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an individual to be considered not leading a sedentary lifestyle?

A. 30 minutes of light activity four days per week for four months

B. 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months

C. 60 minutes of moderate intensity activity three days per week for three months

None

30.

Which of the following makes the largest contribution to the body's daily energy expenditure?

A. Physical activity

B. Thermic effect of food

C. Resting metabolic rate

None

1 out of 30

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Domain 4: Program Design and Implementation

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Domain 4: Program Design and Implementation. (30 questions)

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Which of the following should pregnant women avoid when training?

A. Resistance training

B. Deep abdominal breathing

C. Lying on their back after the first trimester

D. All abdominal exercises

None

What does the F in the FITTE principle stand for?

A. Form

B. Frequency

C. Fun

D. Flow

None

Which of the following training modes can be used to improve stride length during sprint activities?

A. Resisted sprinting

B. Assisted sprinting

C. Alternating bounds

None

All of the following are true statements about physical activity for preadolescent youth (children) except:

A. A child's heart rate might exceed 200 beats/minute during vigorous exercise

B. Physical activity can enhance psychosocial well-being in children

C. Children have been shown to experience strength gains of 30 to 40% after just two to three months of resistance training

D. Resistance training is not safe for pre-adolescents under the age of 13

None

Which of the following is not a factor in determining a client's primary resistance training goal?

A. Initial client consultation

B. Fitness assessment

C. Personal trainer's desires

None

Which of the following is the starting point before deciding clients can add horizontal and vertical components to their plyometric training?

A. Vertical jump equal to half of height

B. 1RM squat greater than 1.5 times body weight

C. Proper landing position

None

Which of the following is not a factor in improving body composition as a result of a consistent resistance training program?

A. Body areas that are resistance trained will lose fat

B. Decreased fat mass

C. Increased fat-free mass

None

Which intensity is ideal for increased muscular endurance and stabilization?

A. 50-70% 1RM

B. 30-45% 1RM

C. 75-85% 1RM

D. 85-100% 1RM

None

Which of the following best describes a training macrocycle?

A. An overall training period that typically lasts for at least one year

B. A single workout

C. A week-long period of workouts

D. A portion of a training program made up of multiple microcycles

None

10.

Which of the following is considered a power training exercise?

A. Squat on an unstable surface

B. Squat jump

C. Weighted squat

D. Single-leg squat

None

11.

What is a correct example of a resistance training superset in Phase 5 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

A. A maximal speed exercise followed by a maximal force production exercise after a 30-second rest interval

B. A maximal speed exercise followed immediately by a maximal force production exercise

C. A strength exercise followed immediately by a power exercise

D. A strength exercise followed by a power exercise after a 60-second recovery interval

None

12.

Which of the following is an advisable training session for a client recovering from a stroke?

A. Cycle ergometer at 30% VO2 max

B. Treadmill walking at 30% VO2 max

C. Cycle ergometer at 50% VO2 max

None

13.

How are plyometric exercises utilized in Phase 5?

A. Plyometric-power exercises can be part of a dynamic flexibility warm-up or be used in nonresistance sessions

B. Plyometric-power exercises should be combined with the resistance portion of the training session

C. Plyometric-power exercises are optional in Phase 5 but recommended

D. Plyometric-power exercises can be used in conjunction with SAQ drills

None

14.

What is the loss of muscle mass that occurs over time as we age?

A. Sarcopenia

B. Osteoporosis

C. Osteopenia

D. Detraining

None

15.

How many sets of plyometric movements should be included in Phase 2?

A. 1-2

B. 2-3

C. 4-5

D. 3-4

None

16.

Which of the following is the best description of a superset?

A. One exercise immediately followed by another exercise with no rest

B. One exercise followed by another exercise with at least 60 seconds of rest

C. One exercise followed by another exercise with at least 30 seconds of rest

D. One upper body exercise followed by a lower body exercise with at least 30 seconds of rest

None

17.

Why should training duration be limited to 60-90 minutes?

A. Longer training sessions increase risk of upper respiratory infections

B. Training sessions lose effectiveness after 90 minutes

C. Longer training sessions require more client motivation

D. Training sessions longer than 90 minutes cause injury

None

18.

Which of the following is a balance-stabilization exercise?

A. Single-leg box hop-down

B. Lunge to balance

C. Single-leg hip rotation

D. Single-leg squat

None

19.

All of the following are low-volume training adaptations except:

A. Increased motor unit recruitment

B. Increased rate of force production

C. Increased muscle cross-sectional area

D. Increased motor unit synchronization

None

20.

During a vertical loading session, how long should the rest period be between each exercise?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 45 seconds

D. Little to no rest

None

21.

What is the definition of "training intensity"?

A. The client's level of effort in comparison to their HRmax

B. The client's level of effort in comparison to their VO2max

C. The client's level of effort in comparison to their maximal effort

D. The client's level of effort as measured by their hydration status

None

22.

Which of the following primary resistance training goals is the most appropriate for a client who wants to increase their stamina?

A. Hypertrophy

B. Muscular endurance

C. Muscular strength

None

23.

Which of the following aerobic conditioning training variables is the most important for an individual with hyperlipidemia?

A. Intensity

B. Duration

C. Frequency

None

24.

Which of the following blood pressure measurements is considered hypertensive?

A. 120/74

B. 146/80

C. 130/89

D. 138/86

None

25.

A client is wishing to improve her running speed for the various road races she runs. Which of the following types of aerobic endurance training programs should the personal trainer assign to accomplish this goal?

A. Pace/tempo training

B. Long, slow distance

C. Interval training

None

26.

What two neurological factors control muscle force and can increase with beginning a resistance training program?

A. Motor unit recruitment and the size principle

B. Motor unit recruitment and rate coding

C. Rate coding and connective tissue strength

D. Connective tissue strength and muscle size

None

27.

A client is programmed to perform heavy sets of squats during their workout. Performing lighter sets of squats prior to the heavy sets is an example of what?

A. Pre-fatigue sets

B. Specific warm-up

C. General warm-up

D. Passive warm-up

None

28.

What type of resistance exercises are used in Phase 5?

A. 30-45% intensity (power) for 3-5 sets with 8-10 repetitions

B. 70-80% intensity (strength) supersets for 3-5 sets with 6-10 repetitions

C. 85-100% intensity (strength) superset with 30-45% 1RM (power)

D. 85-100% intensity (strength) for 6-8 sets with 1-5 repetitions

None

29.

Which of the following cardio machines should be avoided by an individual whose feet turn out?

A. Rowing machine

B. Stair climber

C. Elliptical trainer

D. Versa climber

None

30.

All of the following motions occur in the sagittal plane except:

A. Triceps push-downs

B. Front lunges

C. Side bends

D. Biceps curls

None

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Domain 5: Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction

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All of the following muscles contract during abdominal bracing except:

A. Rectus abdominis

B. Scalenes

C. Quadratus lumborum

D. External obliques

None

A client typically runs outdoors; however, uses the treadmill during poor weather. Which of the following changes would provide the necessary adjustment to get the same workout on the treadmill as she does outside?

A. Increase running duration by 5%

B. Increase running speed by 3%

C. Increase the grade of incline to 1%

D. Increase the grade of incline to 3%

None

During which of the following plyometric exercises is a countermovement not involved in correct execution?

A. Skip

B. Ankle flip

C. Standing long jump

None

Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

A. Lat pull-down

B. Push-up

C. Machine leg extension

D. Bench press

None

What is the correct body position for the torso during the acceleration phase of a sprint?

A. Leaning forward 5 degrees

B. Leaning forward 30 degrees

C. Vertical

D. Leaning forward 45 degrees

None

According to the principle of adaptation, which of the following is true?

A. Adaptation requires a constant change of technique

B. Adaptation manifests as the primary goal of exercise programs

C. Adaptation involves the need for client education

D. Adaptation allows constant improvements to occur

None

During the downward phase of the lat pull-down, where should the bar touch the body at the lowest position of the exercise?

A. Nipples

B. Chin

C. Clavicle

None

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

A. The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint

B. The combination of flexibility and the nervous system's capability to effectively regulate range of motion

C. The capacity of the neuromuscular system to engage the proper muscles to produce and reduce force and stabilize the body

D. The tendency of the body to avoid range of motion hindrances due to overly tight muscles

None

What movement is occurring in the elbows during the forward movement phase of the low pulley seated row?

A. Extension

B. The elbows should not move during this phase of the exercise, they should remain flexed

C. Flexion

D. The elbows should not move during this phase of the exercise, they should remain extended

None

10.

Balance is influenced by all of the following factors except:

A. Inactivity

B. Injury

C. Age

D. Weight

None

11.

In which plane of motion does the lateral tube walking dynamic stretch take place?

A. Frontal

B. Transverse

C. Longitudinal

D. Sagittal

None

12.

What is the amortization phase of plyometric training?

A. It occurs between the eccentric and strength phases and involves dynamic resistance

B. It occurs between the stabilization and strength phases and involves dynamic flexibility

C. It occurs between the eccentric and concentric phases and involves dynamic stabilization

D. It occurs between the strength and power phases and involves dynamic balance

None

13.

Which muscles should be statically stretched?

A. The major muscles at each kinetic chain checkpoint

B. Muscles that have been identified as overactive

C. All the muscles of the lower body

D. Muscles that have been identified as weak

None

14.

To perform the lat pulldown, where should the bar be placed at the end of the downward phase of the movement?

A. Even with the chin

B. Touching the clavicles or upper chest

C. Touching the neck, behind the head

D. Even with the midline of the chest

None

15.

All of the following exercises can teach clients proper abdominal bracing techniques except:

A. Low prone iso-abs

B. Floor bridge

C. High prone iso-abs

D. Valsalva maneuver

None

16.

Which of the following describes the most appropriate body position for running and walking?

A. Upright posture, upper body relaxed and positioned over the hips

B. Upright posture, upper body tight and positioned over the hips

C. Slightly flexed posture, upper body relaxed and positioned over the hips

None

17.

Which description best fits the definition of circuit training?

A. A series of exercises, one performed at a moderate level of intensity, alternating with an exercise of high intensity

B. A series of exercises all using the same muscle group

C. A series of exercises, one performed after the other, with minimal rest

D. A series of exercises, one performed immediately after the other, with no rest

None

18.

The proper landing position for plyometric training includes:

A. The shoulders in line with the knees

B. The feet about hip-width apart with the knees bent

C. The shoulders directly above the hips with a vertical torso

D. The feet are flat with the bodyweight in the heels

None

19.

Which of the following is not a description of correct technique for the pretzel stretch?

A. Place the palm 12 to 16 inches behind the hips

B. Flex the knee and cross it over the other extended leg

C. Keep the buttocks on the floor throughout the stretch

D. Twist the torso to the side opposite the raised knee

None

20.

Which of the following is not a description of correct technique for the downward movement phase of the front squat exercise?

A. Allow the heels to rise slightly off the floor

B. Keep the torso-to-floor angle relatively constant

C. Continue to lower until the thighs are parallel to the ground

None

21.

Which of the following correctly describes the end position of the bar during the downward movement phase of the lying triceps extension exercise?

A. Over the head

B. Touching the forehead

C. Touching the nose

None

22.

An eccentric muscle action is also referred to as:

A. Force activation

B. Force reduction

C. Force maintenance

D. Force production

None

23.

What should a client do when setting up the starting position of the front squat exercise to ensure the barbell does not contact the rack?

A. Take one or two steps backward

B. Have spotters place barbell in parallel arm position

C. Take 4 to 5 steps backward

None

24.

A hypertensive client is performing heavier back squats. How should they breathe as they hit the sticking point in the lift?

A. They should inhale

B. They should exhale

C. They should use the Valsalva maneuver to help increase strength

D. They should hold their breath throughout the lift

None

25.

All of the following are considered submaximal testing methods except:

A. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

B. Rating of perceived exertion (RPE) method

C. Maximal heart rate method

D. Peak VO2 method

None

26.

All of the following are appropriate cues for a barbell bicep curl except:

A. Keep a slight bend in the elbow when you lower the bar to the bottom of the movement

B. Don't let the elbows drift forward as you curl the bar up toward your shoulders

C. Keep the torso stationary and do not lean back as you curl the bar up toward the shoulders

D. Grab the bar with a closed, supinated grip

None

27.

What is flexibility?

A. The ability to stretch muscles into their optimal posture

B. The ability to extend the hip flexors so that the fingers can reach the toes

C. The ability to move a joint through normal extension and range of motion

D. The ability to arch the spine far enough back to create a half-circle shape

None

28.

Which of the following joint movements is occurring during the forward movement phase of the pec deck?

A. Shoulder abduction

B. Shoulder horizontal adduction

C. Shoulder horizontal abduction

None

29.

All of the following are functional examples of effective speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) training except:

A. Getting out of the way of a sprinting dog that is off its leash

B. Moving out of the way of oncoming traffic

C. Moving to save a glass from falling off the edge of a counter

D. Walking from the car to the storefront

None

30.

Which is the best description of plyometric-power training?

A. Plyometric-power training uses dynamic eccentric and concentric movement with increased neural demand

B. Plyometric-power training uses the entire muscle action and contraction-velocity spectrums

C. Plyometric-power training establishes correct landing mechanics, alignment, and neuromuscular efficiency

D. Plyometric-power training improves dynamic joint stabilization and rate of force production

None

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Domain 6: Professional Practice and Responsibility

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Which of the following is an aspect of in-home personal training?

A. The trainer owns a facility and is responsible for facility ordinances

B. The trainer must travel and use portable equipment

C. The trainer pays a fee to a health club to train clients

D. The trainer is paid an hourly wage with benefits

None

Why isn't profit the main driver of a personal training business?

A. Profit is the main driver of a personal training business

B. The source of profit will inevitably become neglected

C. Clients should be the main driver of a personal training business

D. Profit eventually becomes meaningless over time

None

In regard to exercise intensity, what should a fitness professional pay close attention to when working with new clients?

A. Whether the level of intensity causes the client to sweat

B. Whether the level of intensity is challenging enough

C. Whether the level of intensity causes enough discomfort for mild soreness the next day

D. Whether the level of intensity is appropriate for the client's physical and emotional state

None

All of the following are benefits of using a mobile app in a personal training service except:

A. A communication app can help the trainer provide guidance and remote training to clients

B. A social network app can support the fitness professional with encouragement and inspiration

C. A programming app can eliminate the need for the trainer to create a training program

D. A tracking app can monitor the client's workload

None

What is an aspect of independent contractor work as a trainer?

A. The trainer can target and market to a specific population, building their own business model

B. There are no overhead costs, but the trainer must transport any and all equipment

C. The trainer may be paid more if they have multiple fitness certifications, years of service, and/or high client retention

D. The trainer does not work regularly but on an as-needed basis

None

A trainer's response to a sexual harassment issue should be: