ISSA Practice Exam

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Welcome to your ISSA Practice Exam

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual ISSA Exam with (100) questions.

The ISSA Exam is broken down into Six (6) Parts, in this part of ISSA Practice Exam you will have 100 questions to complete.

Here are the Six (6) Domains of ISSA with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology) [25 Questions] - 25%

2. Nutrition [10 Questions] - 10%

3. Intake and Ongoing Evaluation [15 Questions] - 15%

4. Program Design and Implementation [25 Questions] - 25%

5. Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction [15 Questions] - 15%

6. Professional Practice and Responsibility [10 Questions] - 10%

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Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

The Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are what kind of sensory receptors?

A. Nociceptors

B. Mechanoreceptors

C. Photoreceptors

D. Chemoreceptors

None

1 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

A. Slow to fatigue

B. Larger in size

C. Short-term contractions

D. Decreased oxygen delivery

None

2 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

In regard to working with the internal obliques, what is the main muscular role of the transverse abdominis?

A. To facilitate lateral flexion

B. To isometrically stabilize the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

C. To assist in trunk flexion

D. To facilitate contralateral rotation

None

3 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

All of the following are potential side effects of elevated cortisol levels except:

A. Increased body composition (specifically abdominal fat)

B. Decreased fat utilization

C. Decreased breathing rate

D. Breakdown of muscle tissue

None

4 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

What amount of time is recommended to hold a stretch for the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) to signal a muscle to relax?

A. 45 seconds

B. 15 seconds

C. 30 seconds

D. 10 seconds

None

5 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

The patella is considered to be which type of bone?

A. Irregular bone

B. Short bone

C. Flat bone

D. Sesamoid bone

None

6 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

When the body is trying to regulate its temperature properly, what sensory receptors does it rely on?

A. Mechanoreceptors

B. Thermoreceptors

C. Nociceptors

D. Chemoreceptors

None

7 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

All of the following are causes of restrictive lung disease except:

A. Fractured ribs

B. Asthma

C. A neuromuscular disease

D. Obesity

None

8 out of 100

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Proprioception uses information from which of the following to provide information about body position and movement?

A. Chemoreceptors

B. Muscle synergies

C. Mechanoreceptors

D. Sensorimotor integration

None

9 out of 100

10.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Which of the following muscles commonly causes a decreased neural drive of the gluteus maximus?

A. Psoas

B. Hamstrings

C. Gluteus medius

D. Adductors

None

10 out of 100

11.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

When overtraining occurs, which hormone is typically present in the bloodstream?

A. Epinephrine

B. Cortisol

C. Growth hormone

D. Norepinephrine

None

11 out of 100

12.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

How does the body use the central nervous system to create movement?

A. Through proprioception, which is its ability to sense the relative position of body parts

B. Through sensory function, which is its ability to detect alterations in the body's internal or external environment

C. Through motor function, which is the neuromuscular response to sensory data

D. Through integrative function, which is its capacity to evaluate sensory information and choose a suitable reaction

None

12 out of 100

13.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

After exercising for over 90 minutes, which fuel source is an individual most likely to run out of?

A. Fat

B. Glycogen

C. Acetyl-CoA

D. Amino acids

None

13 out of 100

14.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

What is the unique feature of Type IIa muscle fibers?

A. They can produce the most speed and strength

B. They can provide the most stabilization force without fatiguing as quickly

C. They are capable of creating energy from both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism in nearly equal amounts

D. They contain the most mitochondria, myoglobin, and capillaries

None

14 out of 100

15.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Which of the following is considered the best time increment for measuring heart rate during exercise?

A. 6 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 15 seconds

D. 60 seconds

None

15 out of 100

16.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Inside the myofibrils of muscle tissue, which two types of contractile myofilaments can be found?

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A. Sarcoplasm and plasma

B. Actin and myosin

C. Tropomyosin and troponin

D. Agonist and synergist

None

16 out of 100

17.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

During a biceps curl, the triceps brachii would be considered which type of mover?

A. Stabilizer

B. Antagonist

C. Agonist

D. Synergist

None

17 out of 100

18.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Which of the following is not a kinetic chain checkpoint term?

A. Foot

B. Core

C. Knee

D. Shoulders

None

18 out of 100

19.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Growth hormone is stimulated by all of the following except:

A. Deep sleep

B. Testosterone

C. Catecholamines

D. Vigorous exercise

None

19 out of 100

20.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Golfing and swinging a bat are both examples of movement that occurs in which plane of motion?

A. Sagittal

B. Frontal

C. Longitudinal

D. Tranverse

None

20 out of 100

21.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Which of the following is not a primary muscle of the global stabilization system?

A. Quadratus lumborum

B. Gluteus medius

C. Latissimus dorsi

D. Rectus abdominis

None

21 out of 100

22.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

What are the two mechanoreceptors involved in flexibility?

A. Muscle spindles and connective tissues

B. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) and efferent neurons

C. Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)

D. Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) and connective tissues

None

22 out of 100

23.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Which of the following is the body's most usable form of energy?

A. Adenosine diphosphate

B. Adenosine triphosphate

C. Macronutrients (protein, fat, carbohydrates)

D. Micronutrients (minerals, vitamins, phytonutrients)

None

23 out of 100

24.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except:

A. Upper trapezius

B. Levator scapulae

C. Sternocleidomastoid

D. Deep cervical flexors

None

24 out of 100

25.

Applied Science (Anatomy, Kinesiology, Physiology),ISSA CPT

Reciprocal inhibition can best be described as:

A. When a muscle relaxes to allow another muscle to contract

B. The resting length of a muscle and the tension that muscle can produce at that resting length

C. Response to stimuli that activates movement in muscles

D. Muscle groups producing movement around a joint by moving simultaneously

None

25 out of 100

26.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is a potential effect of excess vitamin A intake?

A. Elevated thyroid hormone concentration

B. Nerve damage

C. Diarrhea

D. Liver damage

None

26 out of 100

27.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

What percentage of total calories should come from fat sources?

A. 15-20% of total daily calories

B. 20-35% of total daily calories

C. 35-45% of total daily calories

D. 10-15% of total daily calories

None

27 out of 100

28.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

An individual should consume at least how many calories per day to ensure that they are receiving proper and adequate nutrition?

A. 1,500 calories per day

B. 1,200 calories per day

C. 1,000 calories per day

D. 800 calories per day

None

28 out of 100

29.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

What is the best way for an individual to minimize blood sugar fluctuations?

A. Eating larger, less frequent meals

B. Eating a high-fat diet

C. Eating a low-carbohydrate diet

D. Eating small, frequent meals

None

29 out of 100

30.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is a potential effect of ingesting too much iron?

A. Gastrointestinal irritation

B. Impaired immune function

C. Kidney stones

D. Fatigue

None

30 out of 100

31.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

All of the following are complete protein food sources except:

A. Macaroni and cheese

B. Yogurt and granola

C. Sunflower seeds

D. Whole egg

None

31 out of 100

32.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

Which of the following best describes Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)?

A. The recommended intake for specific nutrients

B. The estimated amount of a nutrient per day by which the needs of 50% of the population will be met

C. The estimated amount of a nutrient per day consumed by people assumed to be maintaining adequate nutrition

D. The estimated amount of a nutrient per day considered necessary for good health

None

32 out of 100

33.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is true regarding carbohydrates?

A. They contribute to the obesity epidemic

B. They cause diabetes

C. They supply energy

D. All types should be avoided

None

33 out of 100

34.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

Which of the following foods is highest on the glycemic index (GI)?

A. Rice cakes

B. Popcorn

C. Peanuts

D. Sweet potato

None

34 out of 100

35.

Nutrition,ISSA CPT

All of the following foods are sources of trans-fatty acids except:

A. Margarine

B. Doughnuts

C. Fried chicken

D. Whole milk

None

35 out of 100

36.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Which method of dietary assessment that can be provided by a personal trainer is considered the most valid?

A. Diet history

B. Dietary record

C. Dietary recall

None

36 out of 100

37.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

During the initial client consultation, within which form would a client find information about client-trainer confidentiality?

A. Informed consent

B. Medical questionnaire

C. Assumption of risk agreement

D. Client-trainer agreement

None

37 out of 100

38.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following are valid indications for terminating an exercise testing session? I. Dizziness of the client II. Testing equipment failure III. Change in client's heart rhythm during test IV. Drop in blood pressure below baseline during test V. Client's request to stop

A. All of these

B. I, II, and V only

C. II, III, and IV only

None

38 out of 100

39.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following variables are needed to calculate maximal oxygen consumption during the Rockport walking test? I. Body weight (in pounds) II. Age III. Time IV. Heart rate immediately after completion V. Gender

A. II, IV, and V only

B. I, III, and V only

C. All of these

None

39 out of 100

40.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

An excessive arch in the lower back when at rest is known as what?

A. Lordosis

B. Kyphosis

C. Scoliosis

D. Stenosis

None

40 out of 100

41.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is considered companionship support?

A. A babysitter

B. A friendly trainer

C. A workout buddy

D. A workout plan from the trainer

None

41 out of 100

42.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

How can a trainer help a client develop positive self-talk?

A. Offer emotional support during the client's frustrations

B. Train the client in how to identify and reframe negative thoughts

C. Help the client monitor their exercise habits

D. Educate the client on how negative thoughts are harmful

None

42 out of 100

43.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

How can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

A. Clarify misconceptions about exercise

B. Discuss the best program for them

C. Discuss progress and suggest changes to the training plan

D. Continue educating them concerning the benefits of exercise

None

43 out of 100

44.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

If a client's BMI is considered to be a healthy weight, what type of reference perspective is being used?

A. Health-referenced standard

B. Criterion-referenced standard

C. Norm-referenced standard

None

44 out of 100

45.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

What is the recommended way for an individual to self-monitor?

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A. Keeping a daily written record

B. Weekly goal writing

C. Having daily conversations with their trainer

D. Engaging in positive self-talk regularly

None

45 out of 100

46.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following cognitive-behavioral approaches can help distract an individual during strenuous exercise?

A. Association

B. Disassociation

C. Self-monitoring

D. Social support

None

46 out of 100

47.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

All of the following are generally included in a client-trainer agreement except:

A. Description of the cancellation policy

B. Documentation of services provided

C. A PAR-Q

D. Information on the payment process

None

47 out of 100

48.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

In which of the following types of dietary assessment does a client answer questions about typical eating habits and give an estimation of their weight over the last few years?

A. Dietary recall

B. Diet record

C. Diet history

None

48 out of 100

49.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Of the different types of fats, which should be consumed the least, or not at all?

A. Polyunsaturated fats

B. Trans fats

C. Monounsaturated fats

None

49 out of 100

50.

Intake and Ongoing Evaluation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

A. "Have you ever participated in high-intensity interval training?"

B. "Why do you want to begin working out?"

C. "Do you like resistance training?"

D. "Do you have any fitness and health goals?"

None

50 out of 100

51.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

An advanced client wants to improve his muscular power. Which of the following load and repetition schemes will be the most effective at helping to reach this training goal?

A. 50% of 1RM for 12 repetitions

B. 50% of 1RM for 4 repetitions

C. 80% of 1RM for 8 repetitions

None

51 out of 100

52.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

What is a correct example of a resistance training superset in Phase 5 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

A. A maximal speed exercise followed by a maximal force production exercise after a 30-second rest interval

B. A maximal speed exercise followed immediately by a maximal force production exercise

C. A strength exercise followed immediately by a power exercise

D. A strength exercise followed by a power exercise after a 60-second recovery interval

None

52 out of 100

53.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

All of the following are true statements about physical activity for preadolescent youth (children) except:

A. A child's heart rate might exceed 200 beats/minute during vigorous exercise

B. Physical activity can enhance psychosocial well-being in children

C. Children have been shown to experience strength gains of 30 to 40% after just two to three months of resistance training

D. Resistance training is not safe for pre-adolescents under the age of 13

None

53 out of 100

54.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

When completing a resistance training superset in the power level of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, at what percentage of intensity should each exercise be performed?

A. 65-75% 1 RM for strength, 45-60% 1 RM for power

B. 45-60% 1 RM for strength, 75-85% 1 RM for power

C. 75-85% 1 RM for strength, 45-60% 1 RM for power

D. 85-100% 1 RM for strength, 30-45% 1 RM for power

None

54 out of 100

55.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

What type of resistance exercises are used in Phase 5?

A. 30-45% intensity (power) for 3-5 sets with 8-10 repetitions

B. 70-80% intensity (strength) supersets for 3-5 sets with 6-10 repetitions

C. 85-100% intensity (strength) superset with 30-45% 1RM (power)

D. 85-100% intensity (strength) for 6-8 sets with 1-5 repetitions

None

55 out of 100

56.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

What two neurological factors control muscle force and can increase with beginning a resistance training program?

A. Motor unit recruitment and the size principle

B. Motor unit recruitment and rate coding

C. Rate coding and connective tissue strength

D. Connective tissue strength and muscle size

None

56 out of 100

57.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Regarding the principle of specificity, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate to include in a program for a client who is an Olympic-level archery competitor?

A. Single arm dumbbell rows

B. Barbell squats

C. Sprints on an exercise bicycle

D. Steady-state cardiovascular exercise on a treadmill

None

57 out of 100

58.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following best describes a training macrocycle?

A. An overall training period that typically lasts for at least one year

B. A single workout

C. A week-long period of workouts

D. A portion of a training program made up of multiple microcycles

None

58 out of 100

59.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following training modes can be used to improve stride length during sprint activities?

A. Resisted sprinting

B. Assisted sprinting

C. Alternating bounds

None

59 out of 100

60.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

How many repetitions of resistance exercise should a client complete during a Phase 3 hypertrophy workout?

A. 8-12 repetitions

B. 6-12 repetitions

C. 1-5 repetitions

D. 15-20 repetitions

None

60 out of 100

61.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

All of the following motions occur in the sagittal plane except:

A. Triceps push-downs

B. Front lunges

C. Side bends

D. Biceps curls

None

61 out of 100

62.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

When designing a workout program for a client in Phase 1 of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, how many sets of exercise should there be?

A. 5-7 sets

B. 2-4 sets

C. 1-3 sets

D. 12-20 sets

None

62 out of 100

63.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

How many sets of plyometric movements should be included in Phase 2?

A. 1-2

B. 2-3

C. 4-5

D. 3-4

None

63 out of 100

64.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

How should the order of exercises be chosen for a client's workout program?

A. Exercises should be prioritized by power, strength, and then stabilization

B. Exercises should be prioritized by stabilization, strength, and then power

C. Exercises should be prioritized according to the individual's needs and training objectives

D. Exercises should be prioritized according to what the individual dislikes the most

None

64 out of 100

65.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

During a vertical loading session, how long should the rest period be between each exercise?

A. 30 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 45 seconds

D. Little to no rest

None

65 out of 100

66.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is not a factor in improving body composition as a result of a consistent resistance training program?

A. Body areas that are resistance trained will lose fat

B. Decreased fat mass

C. Increased fat-free mass

None

66 out of 100

67.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

What is the repetition range in the stabilization endurance phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

A. 12-20 repetitions

B. 12-15 repetitions

C. 15-25 repetitions

D. 8-12 repetitions

None

67 out of 100

68.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is considered a power training exercise?

A. Squat on an unstable surface

B. Squat jump

C. Weighted squat

D. Single-leg squat

None

68 out of 100

69.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

An individual is interested in developing maximal muscular strength. In order to produce superior results, what phase of training should be completed immediately before beginning a training phase focused on muscular strength?

A. Hypertrophy

B. Muscular power

C. Muscular endurance

D. Muscular strength

None

69 out of 100

70.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is an advisable training session for a client recovering from a stroke?

A. Cycle ergometer at 30% VO2 max

B. Treadmill walking at 30% VO2 max

C. Cycle ergometer at 50% VO2 max

None

70 out of 100

71.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is true regarding a client's max heart rate?

A. A client's max heart rate is always the same, from birth until death

B. A client's max heart rate can be calculated with a margin of error of + / - 3 beats per minute by using the formula: 220 - age in years

C. With appropriate training, most clients will be able to safely exercise at an intensity that causes them to work at their max heart rate for an extended period of time

D. Determining a client's true max heart rate requires the client to exercise at their max capacity

None

71 out of 100

72.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

All of the following are low-volume training adaptations except:

A. Increased motor unit recruitment

B. Increased rate of force production

C. Increased muscle cross-sectional area

D. Increased motor unit synchronization

None

72 out of 100

73.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

High-velocity (power) adaptations are best achieved at what percentage of an individual's one repetition maximum?

A. 50 to 70% of 1RM

B. 30 to 45% of 1RM

C. 75 to 85% of 1RM

D. 85 to 100% of 1RM

None

73 out of 100

74.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is the best description of a superset?

A. One exercise immediately followed by another exercise with no rest

B. One exercise followed by another exercise with at least 60 seconds of rest

C. One exercise followed by another exercise with at least 30 seconds of rest

D. One upper body exercise followed by a lower body exercise with at least 30 seconds of rest

None

74 out of 100

75.

Program Design and Implementation,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is the starting point before deciding clients can add horizontal and vertical components to their plyometric training?

A. Vertical jump equal to half of height

B. 1RM squat greater than 1.5 times body weight

C. Proper landing position

None

75 out of 100

76.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

During the downward phase of the lat pull-down, where should the bar touch the body at the lowest position of the exercise?

A. Nipples

B. Chin

C. Clavicle

None

76 out of 100

77.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

A. Lat pull-down

B. Push-up

C. Machine leg extension

D. Bench press

None

77 out of 100

78.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

During which of the following plyometric exercises is a countermovement not involved in correct execution?

A. Skip

B. Ankle flip

C. Standing long jump

None

78 out of 100

79.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

All of the following muscles contract during abdominal bracing except:

A. Rectus abdominis

B. Scalenes

C. Quadratus lumborum

D. External obliques

None

79 out of 100

80.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

Which of the following describes the most appropriate body position for running and walking?

A. Upright posture, upper body relaxed and positioned over the hips

B. Upright posture, upper body tight and positioned over the hips

C. Slightly flexed posture, upper body relaxed and positioned over the hips

None

80 out of 100

81.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

A. The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint

B. The combination of flexibility and the nervous system's capability to effectively regulate range of motion

C. The capacity of the neuromuscular system to engage the proper muscles to produce and reduce force and stabilize the body

D. The tendency of the body to avoid range of motion hindrances due to overly tight muscles

None

81 out of 100

82.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

What movement is occurring in the elbows during the forward movement phase of the low pulley seated row?

A. Extension

B. The elbows should not move during this phase of the exercise, they should remain flexed

C. Flexion

D. The elbows should not move during this phase of the exercise, they should remain extended

None

82 out of 100

83.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

What is the correct body position for the torso during the acceleration phase of a sprint?

A. Leaning forward 5 degrees

B. Leaning forward 30 degrees

C. Vertical

D. Leaning forward 45 degrees

None

83 out of 100

84.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

In which plane of motion does the lateral tube walking dynamic stretch take place?

A. Frontal

B. Transverse

C. Longitudinal

D. Sagittal

None

84 out of 100

85.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

What is the amortization phase of plyometric training?

A. It occurs between the eccentric and strength phases and involves dynamic resistance

B. It occurs between the stabilization and strength phases and involves dynamic flexibility

C. It occurs between the eccentric and concentric phases and involves dynamic stabilization

D. It occurs between the strength and power phases and involves dynamic balance

None

85 out of 100

86.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

Which muscles should be statically stretched?

A. The major muscles at each kinetic chain checkpoint

B. Muscles that have been identified as overactive

C. All the muscles of the lower body

D. Muscles that have been identified as weak

None

86 out of 100

87.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

According to the principle of adaptation, which of the following is true?

A. Adaptation requires a constant change of technique

B. Adaptation manifests as the primary goal of exercise programs

C. Adaptation involves the need for client education

D. Adaptation allows constant improvements to occur

None

87 out of 100

88.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

Balance is influenced by all of the following factors except:

A. Inactivity

B. Injury

C. Age

D. Weight

None

88 out of 100

89.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

All of the following exercises can teach clients proper abdominal bracing techniques except:

A. Low prone iso-abs

B. Floor bridge

C. High prone iso-abs

D. Valsalva maneuver

None

89 out of 100

90.

Exercise Selection, Technique, and Training Instruction,ISSA CPT

A client typically runs outdoors; however, uses the treadmill during poor weather. Which of the following changes would provide the necessary adjustment to get the same workout on the treadmill as she does outside?

A. Increase running duration by 5%

B. Increase running speed by 3%

C. Increase the grade of incline to 1%

D. Increase the grade of incline to 3%

None

90 out of 100

91.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

Why isn't profit the main driver of a personal training business?

A. Profit is the main driver of a personal training business

B. The source of profit will inevitably become neglected

C. Clients should be the main driver of a personal training business

D. Profit eventually becomes meaningless over time

None

91 out of 100

92.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is an aspect of in-home personal training?

A. The trainer owns a facility and is responsible for facility ordinances

B. The trainer must travel and use portable equipment

C. The trainer pays a fee to a health club to train clients

D. The trainer is paid an hourly wage with benefits

None

92 out of 100

93.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

In regard to exercise intensity, what should a fitness professional pay close attention to when working with new clients?

A. Whether the level of intensity causes the client to sweat

B. Whether the level of intensity is challenging enough

C. Whether the level of intensity causes enough discomfort for mild soreness the next day

D. Whether the level of intensity is appropriate for the client's physical and emotional state

None

93 out of 100

94.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

All of the following are benefits of using a mobile app in a personal training service except:

A. A communication app can help the trainer provide guidance and remote training to clients

B. A social network app can support the fitness professional with encouragement and inspiration

C. A programming app can eliminate the need for the trainer to create a training program

D. A tracking app can monitor the client's workload

None

94 out of 100

95.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

What is an aspect of independent contractor work as a trainer?

A. The trainer can target and market to a specific population, building their own business model

B. There are no overhead costs, but the trainer must transport any and all equipment

C. The trainer may be paid more if they have multiple fitness certifications, years of service, and/or high client retention

D. The trainer does not work regularly but on an as-needed basis

None

95 out of 100

96.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is the most likely reason for failure of a sale?

A. The trainer was not experienced enough

B. The potential client made illegitimate excuses

C. The program offered was too complex for the potential client

D. There was not enough value in the package offered

None

96 out of 100

97.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

Which of the following is a type of record that a fitness professional should keep?

A. A record of open-ended questions used in each initial interview

B. A record of how many clients are participating in certain exercise programs (e.g., strength or high-intensity interval training)

C. A record of clients' progresses in resistance training

D. A record of clients' physical responses to exercise

None

97 out of 100

98.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

A trainer's response to a sexual harassment issue should be:

A. Review any video footage available to determine whether the claims are accurate

B. Maintain a neutral position on the matter

C. Calm the alleged victim and report the incident to a manager

D. Comply with all local, state, federal, or provincial laws

None

98 out of 100

99.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

Who is responsible for administering directly supervised exercise during phase 2 of cardiac rehabilitation?

A. The fitness professional

B. The health promotion team

C. The physical therapist

D. The physician

None

99 out of 100

100.

Professional Practice and Responsibility,ISSA CPT

All of the following are benefits of full-time fitness club employees except:

A. 401k

B. No marketing required

C. Vacation benefits

D. Medical benefits

None

100 out of 100

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Time's up

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