ACE Practice Exam

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Welcome to your ACE Practice Exam

This test is designed to prepare you mentally for the actual ACE Exam with the same number of questions (150) and the same time allowed (180 minutes) as the actual exam.

The ACE breakdown into four (4) Parts, in this part of ACE Practice Exam you will have 75 questions to complete in 90 minutes.

Here are the Four (4) Domains of ACE with the weightage and number of questions in this exam:

1. Interviews and assessments [18 Questions] - 23%

2. Program design and implementation [23 Questions] - 31%

3. Program modification and progression [19 Questions] - 26%

4. Professional conduct, safety, and risk management[15 Questions] - 20%

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Best of Luck!

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Kelsey is in for her second session and you are conducting the fitness assessments. When you are checking body fat percentage you ask her what types of exercise she likes to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kelsey?

A. A) Planning Stage

B. B) Action Stage

C. C) Investigation Stage

D. D) Rapport Stage

None

1 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

What is the correct strategy to deal with pain or any underlying pathologies if a client mentions lower back pain from certain movement??

A. A) Screen for pronation or supination

B. B) Strengthen the rectus abdominus to correct the length-tension relationship

C. C) Improve mobility through the ankle and hips

D. D) Refer out to a qualified healthcare professional

None

2 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Which muscles are suspected to be tight when a posterior pelvic tilt is determined?

A. A) Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius

B. B) Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

C. C) Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

D. D) Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

None

3 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

During an aerobic capacity assessment, when are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?

A. A) After reaching the second ventilatory threshold

B. B) After reaching the first ventilatory threshold

C. C) In the last two minutes of the test

D. D) Throughout the entire test

None

4 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

What are the proper units of measurement we use to calculate BMI?

A. A) Height (in)/Weight (lb.

B. B) Weight (kg)/Height (m)

C. C) Height (m)/Weight (kg)

D. D) Weight (lb./Height (in)

None

5 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Which of these tests evaluates cardio fitness?

A. A) Rockport Fitness Walking Test

B. B) Bench Press Test

C. C) Leg Press Test

D. D) Bodyweight Squat Test

None

6 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

What method of body fat measurement is inaccurate when used on obese clients?

A. A) Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis

B. B) Total Body Electrical Conductivity

C. C) Skinfold Measurement

D. D) Hydrostatic Weighing

None

7 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Miranda has been up 15 minutes late to her session. The trainer ends the sessions on time rather than extending it the 15 minutes Susie was late. Which principal of behavioral change will allow Miranda to view the consequence of being tardy and correct this behavior in the future?

A. A) Operant conditioning

B. B) Observational learning

C. C) Cognitions of behavior

D. D) Shaping

None

8 out of 75

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

What is a commonly palpated site when checking a client’s heart rate?

A. A) Jugular vein

B. B) Tibial artery

C. C) Radial artery

D. D) Femoral artery

None

9 out of 75

10.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

All of these are characteristic of rapport, besides:

A. A) Demonstrating warmth and genuineness

B. B) Short duration

C. C) Exhibiting empathy

D. D) Creating impressions of professionalism

None

10 out of 75

11.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Why would the prime mover of the gluteals become dormant during hip extension and allow the hamstrings to become the prime mover?

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A. A) Reciprocal inhibition

B. B) Hypertonicity

C. C) Synergistic dominance

D. D) Co-contraction

None

11 out of 75

12.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

A client is able to rotate 30 degrees during a thoracic spine mobility screen. Which area could be directly affected?

A. A) Lumbar spine

B. B) Subtalar joint

C. C) Iliotibial band

D. D) Occipital joint

None

12 out of 75

13.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

How often should heart rate be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A. A) Every minute

B. B) Every 3 minutes

C. C) Every 30 seconds

D. D) Continuously

None

13 out of 75

14.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

In what location should we measure the arm?

A. A) Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed.

B. B) Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process when the bicep flexed.

C. C) Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process when the arm is relaxed.

D. D) Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed.

None

14 out of 75

15.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Before you add weighted loads into client exercises, you need to make sure your client is proficient in which of these movement patterns?

A. A) Core stabilization

B. B) Plyometric jumps

C. C) Dynamic warm ups

D. D) 1RM

None

15 out of 75

16.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Which of these is not correctable through exercise?

A. A) Scoliosis

B. B) Forward head position

C. C) Pelvic tilting

D. D) Scapular protraction

None

16 out of 75

17.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would your client begin to consider the implications of inactivity while remaining sedentary?

A. A) Contemplation

B. B) Precontemplation

C. C) Action

D. D) Preparation

None

17 out of 75

18.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

You are in the program design stage of strength development with your athlete client and you ask her to identify the different movement patterns, speeds, and muscles involved in her sport in order to properly conduct a needs assessment. To which option, in the needs assessment, would this information be applicable?

A. A) Movement analysis

B. B) Injury analysis

C. C) Current conditioning level

D. D) Physiological analysis

None

18 out of 75

19.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which phase would most benefit a client in completing his goal if they have expressed interest in an aesthetic goal and have developed postural stability and movement patterns ideally?

A. A) Movement Training

B. B) Performance Training

C. C) Load Training

D. D) Stability and Mobility Training

None

19 out of 75

20.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

As a client lowers the weights and lengthens his arms during a bicep curl, which type of contraction is the bicep experiencing?

A. A) Progressive contraction

B. B) Eccentric contraction

C. C) Isometric contraction

D. D) Concentric contraction

None

20 out of 75

21.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise intensity?

A. A) Anaerobic threshold

B. B) First ventilator threshold

C. C) Talk test threshold

D. D) Aerobic threshold

None

21 out of 75

22.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which factor has the most influence over flexibility?

A. A) Muscle

B. B) Skin

C. C) Joint capsule

D. D) Tendons

None

22 out of 75

23.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

What would be the ideal hard-to-easy ratio to begin aerobic-efficiency training?

A. A) 1:3

B. B) 1:1

C. C) 1:4

D. D) 1:2

None

23 out of 75

24.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

What is the minimum amount of time aerobic exercise should take?

A. A) 20 minutes

B. B) 45minutes

C. C) 30 minutes

D. D) 10 minutes

None

24 out of 75

25.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which stage will allow your client to develop peak power through intervals at an RPE of 9 or above?

A. A) Aerobic-efficiency Training

B. B) Anaerobic-endurance Training

C. C) Aerobic-base Training

D. D) Anaerobic-power Training

None

25 out of 75

26.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these is the best course of action to continue to increase lower body strength significantly?

A. A) Increase the number of squats to 20 reps per set.

B. B) Add resistance to her squats and lunges.

C. C) Discontinue the squats and lunges until she finds them difficult again.

D. D) Continue with the program as it is.

None

26 out of 75

27.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which one is a concentric contraction?

A. A) Triceps in a bicep curl

B. B) Hamstrings in a leg curl

C. C) Erector spinae in the upward portion of an abdominal crunch

D. D) Hamstrings in a leg extension

None

27 out of 75

28.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which one of these is an example of Stability and Mobility training?

A. A) Leg extension

B. B) Depth jumps

C. C) Bend and lift movements

D. D) Isolated isometric contractions

None

28 out of 75

29.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these is most accurate in terms of resistance training and muscle hypertrophy?

A. A) Resistance training should be periodized for muscle growth.

B. B) Single set training produces superior hypertrophic results.

C. C) Rest intervals should be 2 to 3 minutes.

D. D) Use of a repetition range of 12 or more.

None

29 out of 75

30.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these is not a sensory system that provides essential information to the central nervous system to maintain balance?

A. A) Vestibular

B. B) Somatosensory

C. C) Cognition

D. D) Visual

None

30 out of 75

31.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these statements defines what has happened to your client if they can comfortably talk after 15 minutes of cardio?

A. A) Your client has reached her lactate threshold.

B. B) Your client has reached her maximum oxygen uptake level.

C. C) Your client has reached her ventilator threshold.

D. D) Your client has reached her steady state level.

None

31 out of 75

32.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which method cannot be used to program and monitor exercise intensity?

A. A) Stroke volume

B. B) METs

C. C) Talk test/VT1

D. D) RPE

None

32 out of 75

33.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which training parameter involves the stretch-shortening cycle?

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A. A) Balance

B. B) Reactivity

C. C) Speed

D. D) Power

None

33 out of 75

34.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

What is the target heart rate range be for a client with hypertension?

A. A) 40-65%

B. B) 65-85%

C. C) 55%-75%

D. D) 50-70%

None

34 out of 75

35.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which core layer consists of muscles and fasciae that encircle the lower regions of the spine?

A. A) The outermost layer

B. B) The middle layer

C. C) The sagittal layer

D. D) The deep or most inner layer

None

35 out of 75

36.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Lowered training volume is typical for what client?

A. A) Competitive marathon runner

B. B) Competitive soccer player

C. C) Competitive powerlifter

D. D) Competitive bodybuilder

None

36 out of 75

37.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these is not a benefit of resistance training?

A. A) Increased tensile strength in tendons

B. B) Increased bone mineral density

C. C) Higher cardiac output

D. D) Increased muscle fiber size and contractile strength

None

37 out of 75

38.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

How many times should you suggest a client perform resistance training per week if they have not participated in exercise for two years and want to gain strength and reduce body fat?

A. A) 2-3

B. B) 3-5

C. C) Once a week

D. D) 3-4

None

38 out of 75

39.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

Which of these components represent the last stage of stability and mobility training?

A. A) Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine

B. B) Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint

C. C) Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine

D. D) Static balance

None

39 out of 75

40.

Program design and implementation,ACE CPT

What is phase 1 of the functional movement & resistance training component in the ACE IFT model?

A. A) Load Training

B. B) Performance Training

C. C) Movement Training

D. D) Stability and Mobility Training

None

40 out of 75

41.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

A client is walking on a treadmill at 4.0 mph, and on a grade of 5%. Fifteen minutes into the workout, you are asking her questions about how she feels. Your client only answers with 3-4 words comfortably. What training zone are they likely in?

A. A) Training zone 3

B. B) Training zone 2

C. C) Between zone 1 and 2

D. D) Training zone 1

None

41 out of 75

42.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

A client who is recovering from a stroke. They have clearance from her physician and recommendations to use a recumbent bike and to work on balance exercises. How long should her activities last?

A. A) 30 minutes with rest periods

B. B) 10-15 minutes with no rest

C. C) 3 - 5 minutes with rest periods

D. D) 20 minutes with no rest

None

42 out of 75

43.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Your client has properly performed a bilateral chest press from a seated position without making contact with a backrest after 4 weeks of training. What is the next progression of this movement?

A. A) A seated single-arm press

B. B) A standing press with a split-stance

C. C) A single-arm press with an ipsilateral stance

D. D) A single-arm press with a contralateral stance

None

43 out of 75

44.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Which stage of the ACE IFT model emphasizes seat and standing stabilization over a fixed base of support?

A. A) Stage 3

B. B) Stage 2

C. C) The later portion of stage 2 and all of stage 3

D. D) Stage 1

None

44 out of 75

45.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

What stance is the most challenging in the final stage of progression of static-balance training?

A. A) Staggered Stance

B. B) Hip-width stance

C. C) Split-stance

D. D) Single-leg stance

None

45 out of 75

46.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Which of these is a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training?

A. A) Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge

B. B) Wood chop to Pelvic tilts

C. C) Lunges to Wall sits

D. D) Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements

None

46 out of 75

47.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Which statement is false regarding muscular growth and strength?

A. A) A person’s gender does not affect muscle quality.

B. B) Muscle length relative to bone length can determine muscle size.

C. C) Limb length influences muscle hypertrophy.

D. D) Tendon inserts on the bone and does not affect muscle hypertrophy.

None

47 out of 75

48.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

“I will not miss any scheduled sessions in October.” What is wrong with this goal?

A. A) It is not relevant.

B. B) It is not time-bound.

C. C) It is negative.

D. D) It is unattainable.

None

48 out of 75

49.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

At what point should you progress a client to phase two of cardiorespiratory training?

A. A) If the client is a fitness enthusiast looking for a challenge

B. B) When the client reports an RPE of 10 in phase 1

C. C) When the client can sustain phase 1 for 20-30 minutes

D. D) If the client has event-specific goals

None

49 out of 75

50.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Which of these energy systems is predominant during high intensity agility drills for 15-30 seconds at an intensity level of 70%?

A. A) Both b and c

B. B) Glycolytic system

C. C) ATP system

D. D) Phosphagen system

None

50 out of 75

51.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

What factor of the health belief model would your client be in if they are scared of developing type 2 diabetes?

A. A) Perceived susceptibility

B. B) Perceived seriousness

C. C) Unaware

D. D) Cues to action

None

51 out of 75

52.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Which of these exercise programs would an aspiring bodybuilder most likely not incorporate?

A. A) Circuit training

B. B) Compound sets

C. C) Assisted training

D. D) Supersets

None

52 out of 75

53.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

What would be a goal of exercising in the treatment of cancer?

A. A) Prevent musculoskeletal deterioration

B. B) Reduce symptoms such as nausea and fatigue

C. C) Improve cardiovascular conditioning

D. D) All answers are correct.

None

53 out of 75

54.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

How many days per week should a client do cardio in phase 2 of cardiorespiratory training?

A. A) 4-5 days

B. B) 2-4 days

C. C) 5-6 days

D. D) 1-2 days

None

54 out of 75

55.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

How long should an agility drill take for someone starting out?

A. A) 15-30 seconds

B. B) 10-60 seconds

C. C) 60 seconds to 2 minutes

D. D) Less than 10 seconds

None

55 out of 75

56.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

What is an example of overtraining syndrome?

A. A) Decreased blood pressure

B. B) Decreased resting heart rate

C. C) Increased resting heart rate

D. D) Increased hunger

None

56 out of 75

57.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

Using the SAID principle, what would be implied to meet your client’s goals if they want to run a half-marathon?

A. A) Goals should include muscular hypertrophy.

B. B) The program should involve at least 3 days of speed work.

C. C) The program should progress to mimic the demands of the activity.

D. D) There should be different intensities that stress both the aerobic and anaerobic systems.

None

57 out of 75

58.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

What rest interval is most appropriate for a client looking to build muscular endurance?

A. A) 2 to 5 minutes

B. B) Less than 30 seconds

C. C) 90 to 120 seconds

D. D) 30 to 90 seconds

None

58 out of 75

59.

Program modification and progression,ACE CPT

How many sessions per week do you advise someone to meet with you for full-body resistance training if they are 70 years old and have been inactive for 10 years?

A. A) 3 days per week

B. B) 2 days per week

C. C) None of the above. Bob should not be performing resistance exercises.

D. D) 1 day per week

None

59 out of 75

60.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which of these is considered within your scope of practice if a client wishes to lose 10 lbs.?

A. A) Explain some of the best diets on the market

B. B) All of the these

C. C) Show the client how to read nutrition labels

D. D) Outline a dietary weight loss program

None

60 out of 75

61.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which type of form will you use to demonstrate that the client was made aware of the normal outcomes of the activity and their wiliness to assume the risks of participating in a TRX class?

A. A) Specialty class waiver

B. B) Agreement to participate

C. C) Freedom of consent

D. D) Informed consent

None

61 out of 75

62.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which of these is an acceptable action as an ACE certified personal trainer if you client has confided to you that they had a rough breakup?

A. A) Recommend talking to your personal counselor for advise on dealing with stress.

B. B) Take the client out for lunch to console him.

C. C) Listen to the client with empathy and maintain his confidentiality.

D. D) Help the client understand and implement a new diet to reduce stress.

None

62 out of 75

63.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

From the perspective of the trainer what would be an advantage of the direct-employee model?

A. A) Employers pay for all equipment and the rest of the expenses of the facility.

B. B) Per-session fees are often lower than normal

C. C) Employers may need a minimum number of hours of work for the trainer

D. D) Trainer need to conform to the grooming standards of employee.

None

63 out of 75

64.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which is not a risk factor for coronary artery disease?

A. A) High cholesterol

B. B) Diabetes

C. C) Chondromalacia

D. D) Hypertension

None

64 out of 75

65.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Your client has hypoglycemia. When is the best time to schedule his exercise?

A. A) He should exercise in the morning before a meal.

B. B) He should exercise in the evening before a meal.

C. C) He should never exercise.

D. D) He should exercise in the morning after a meal.

None

65 out of 75

66.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

What are the warning signs that your client may be having a stroke?

A. A) The client has a headache.

B. B) The client’s speech is slurred.

C. C) The client’s one side feels weak and numb.

D. D) All answers are correct.

None

66 out of 75

67.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

What type of condition does your client likely have if their kneecap swells and they have pain at the front and inner side of the knee?

A. A) ACL sprain

B. B) Chondromalacia

C. C) MVL sprain

D. D) Torn lateral meniscus

None

67 out of 75

68.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

What step of the risk-management protocol are you performing if you are performing the risk-management protocol and are specifying the risks that may be encountered in the areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure?

A. A) Selection of an approach for managing each risk

B. B) Implementation

C. C) Risk evaluation

D. D) Risk identification

None

68 out of 75

69.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke?

A. A) Have your client lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids.

B. B) Give your client plenty of fluids and wait to continue exercise until she feels better.

C. C) Discontinue exercise and send your client home.

D. D) Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise.

None

69 out of 75

70.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which of these scenarios would be considered negligence?

A. A) You don't allow a client to exercise without clearance from a physician because they are undergoing radiation for cancer and they are anemic.

B. B) You monitor a client's exercise intensity with the Karvonen method. They take beta blockers and are hypertensive.

C. C) A client who is is currently recovering from hip replacement is now cleared for exercising. You focus your training on hip/leg abduction, strengthening, and lateral movements

D. D) You recommend to a diabetic client that you will monitor their blood glucose levels prior to and after exercising.

None

70 out of 75

71.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which of these is associated with an independent contractor versus and employee?

A. A) Oversees fitness center procedures.

B. B) Receives payment specific to job duties performed.

C. C) Receives health benefits from the fitness center.

D. D) Receives training from the fitness center.

None

71 out of 75

72.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Your client just finished a one-minute plank. When they stand, they feels lightheadedness and nausea. In this situation, the trainer should:

A. A) avoid hydration to not cause vomiting

B. B) move to a less intense exercise.

C. C) sit or lie down.

D. D) stay in a standing position to encourage blood flow

None

72 out of 75

73.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

What should be done by the trainer if something unsafe is noticed in the facility?

A. A) Notify the management and avoid the area

B. B) Fix the equipment

C. C) Exercise caution in using the equipment

D. D) Notify management and utilize the equipment as well as possible

None

73 out of 75

74.

Professional conduct, safety and risk management,ACE CPT

Which of these is a component of a business plan?

A. A) Marketing plan

B. B) Risk analysis

C. C) Executive summary

D. D) All answers are correct

None

74 out of 75

75.

Interviews and assessments,ACE CPT

Which of these symptoms should have the test terminated during any test that involves muscular endurance?

A. A) Cyanosis

B. B) Wheezing

C. C) Angina

D. D) All answers are correct

None

75 out of 75

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